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SSC and RRB16 min readSep 14, 2026

SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test (September 14, 2026) — Day 5, Exam Eve: 100 Questions in the Real Pattern, Fully Explained

SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test (September 14, 2026) — Day 5, Exam Eve: 100 Questions in the Real Pattern, Fully Explained
16 min read · 3,063 words

SSC CGL Tier 1 Mock Test Day 5: 100 Exam-Pattern Questions With Solutions

Quick answer: Day 5, the exam-eve mock: a full 100-question SSC CGL Tier-1 paper in the real pattern – 25 each of Reasoning, General Awareness, Quant and English, 200 marks in 60 minutes at 0.50 negative marking – with the complete answer key and one-line explanation for every question. Exam expected 15 September 2026: tomorrow.

Related: SSC CGL Tier-1 Tomorrow (September 15): The Last-24-Hours Plan, Checklist and Section Strategy

Related: SSC CGL Tier-1 is Over: Answer Key, Normalization and the Tier-2 Roadmap

What is the pattern and how should you sit this last mock?

Four sections of 25 questions and 50 marks each – total 100 questions, 200 marks, 60 minutes, 0.50 negative per wrong answer (source: SSC official website). Sit it at the same time of day as your real slot, one uninterrupted hour, no pauses. Your score here is your baseline for tomorrow – log it section-wise, then spend the evening only on the misses, not on new topics.

General Intelligence and Reasoning (Q1-Q25)

  1. Q1. 4, 9, 19, 39, 79, ?
    (a) 149   b) 159   c) 169   d) 179)
  2. Q2. 7, 14, 28, 56, ?
    (a) 96   b) 108   c) 112   d) 124)
  3. Q3. BD, CF, DH, ?
    (a) EJ   b) EI   c) FJ   d) EK)
  4. Q4. Odd one out: 3, 5, 11, 14, 17
    (a) 3   b) 11   c) 14   d) 17)
  5. Q5. If CAB = 6 (letter-position sum), then BEAD = ?
    (a) 10   b) 12   c) 14   d) 16)
  6. Q6. Pointing to a man, Ravi says: he is my mother’s brother’s son. The man is Ravi’s:
    (a) Brother   b) Cousin   c) Uncle   d) Nephew)
  7. Q7. A man walks 4 km south, 3 km east, then 4 km north. He is now:
    (a) 3 km east of start   b) 4 km east of start   c) 7 km from start   d) At the start)
  8. Q8. Petal : Flower : : Wheel : ?
    (a) Round   b) Vehicle   c) Road   d) Tyre)
  9. Q9. All cats are animals. Some animals are black. Which conclusion follows?
    (a) Some cats are black   b) No cat is black   c) Some animals are cats   d) All animals are cats)
  10. Q10. 2, 6, 18, 54, ?
    (a) 108   b) 126   c) 148   d) 162)
  11. Q11. Odd one out: Rose, Lotus, Marigold, Apple
    (a) Rose   b) Lotus   c) Marigold   d) Apple)
  12. Q12. If SUN = 54 (letter-position sum), then MOON = ?
    (a) 55   b) 56   c) 57   d) 58)
  13. Q13. A father is three times as old as his son. Their ages sum to 48. The father’s age is:
    (a) 30 years   b) 32 years   c) 36 years   d) 40 years)
  14. Q14. The angle between clock hands at 9:30 is:
    (a) 95 degrees   b) 100 degrees   c) 105 degrees   d) 110 degrees)
  15. Q15. If 15 August 2026 is a Saturday, then 30 August 2026 is a:
    (a) Sunday   b) Monday   c) Tuesday   d) Saturday)
  16. Q16. In a row of 35 students, X is 14th from the left. X’s position from the right is:
    (a) 21st   b) 22nd   c) 23rd   d) 24th)
  17. Q17. 27 : 9 : : 64 : ?
    (a) 12   b) 16   c) 18   d) 20)
  18. Q18. 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, ?
    (a) 11   b) 12   c) 13   d) 14)
  19. Q19. Odd one out: 121, 123, 125, 127
    (a) 121   b) 123   c) 125   d) 127)
  20. Q20. If NURSE is written in reverse, it is ESRUN. PATIENT written in reverse is:
    (a) TNEITAP   b) TNEITPA   c) TENITAP   d) TNAIEPT)
  21. Q21. A man walks 6 km west, then 8 km north. His distance from the start is:
    (a) 10 km   b) 12 km   c) 14 km   d) 9 km)
  22. Q22. Cricket, Football and Games are best represented by:
    (a) Three separate circles   b) Two circles inside one big circle   c) Two overlapping circles   d) One circle only)
  23. Q23. AZ, CX, EV, ?
    (a) GT   b) GS   c) FT   d) GU)
  24. Q24. A ranks 8th in a class. B ranks three places ahead of A. B’s rank is:
    (a) 4th   b) 5th   c) 6th   d) 7th)
  25. Q25. Odd one out: 64, 125, 100, 343
    (a) 64   b) 125   c) 100   d) 343)

General Awareness (Q26-Q50)

  1. Q26. Which Article guarantees protection of life and personal liberty?
    (a) Article 19   b) Article 21   c) Article 32   d) Article 14)
  2. Q27. Chandrayaan-3 soft-landed near which lunar region in August 2023?
    (a) North pole   b) South pole   c) Equator   d) Far side only)
  3. Q28. The first woman of Indian origin in space was:
    (a) Sunita Williams   b) Kalpana Chawla   c) Sirisha Bandla   d) Bhawana Kanth)
  4. Q29. The currency of South Korea is:
    (a) Yuan   b) Yen   c) Won   d) Peso)
  5. Q30. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India?
    (a) Prime Minister   b) Speaker   c) Chief Justice of India   d) Vice President)
  6. Q31. The Dadasaheb Phalke Award is given for excellence in:
    (a) Literature   b) Cinema   c) Journalism   d) Music)
  7. Q32. The Sundarbans, the largest mangrove forest, lies mostly in:
    (a) Odisha   b) West Bengal   c) Andhra Pradesh   d) Maharashtra)
  8. Q33. India’s national aquatic animal is:
    (a) Blue whale   b) Ganges river dolphin   c) Olive ridley turtle   d) King cobra)
  9. Q34. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, launched in 2014, aims at:
    (a) Rural housing   b) Financial inclusion   c) Crop insurance   d) Skill training)
  10. Q35. The atomic bomb works on the principle of:
    (a) Nuclear fusion   b) Nuclear fission   c) Radioactive decay   d) Ionisation)
  11. Q36. India’s highest civilian award is:
    (a) Padma Vibhushan   b) Param Vir Chakra   c) Bharat Ratna   d) Ashoka Chakra)
  12. Q37. India’s national fruit is:
    (a) Banana   b) Mango   c) Apple   d) Jackfruit)
  13. Q38. The Attorney General of India is provided by which Article?
    (a) Article 74   b) Article 75   c) Article 76   d) Article 77)
  14. Q39. The FIFA World Cup 2026 is hosted by:
    (a) Qatar   b) USA-Canada-Mexico   c) Russia   d) Spain-Portugal)
  15. Q40. The Doctrine of Lapse is associated with:
    (a) Lord Curzon   b) Lord Dalhousie   c) Lord Ripon   d) Lord Canning)
  16. Q41. Silent Valley National Park is in:
    (a) Tamil Nadu   b) Karnataka   c) Kerala   d) Goa)
  17. Q42. Jog Falls is located in which state?
    (a) Maharashtra   b) Karnataka   c) Kerala   d) Telangana)
  18. Q43. The first President of India was:
    (a) Dr S Radhakrishnan   b) Dr Rajendra Prasad   c) Zakir Husain   d) V V Giri)
  19. Q44. Leaves appear green because chlorophyll:
    (a) Absorbs green light   b) Reflects green light   c) Emits green light   d) Blocks sunlight)
  20. Q45. Panchayati Raj was constitutionalised by which amendment?
    (a) 71st   b) 72nd   c) 73rd   d) 74th)
  21. Q46. Mount Everest was first climbed in 1953 by:
    (a) Hillary and Tenzing   b) Mallory and Irvine   c) Messner and Habeler   d) Hunt and Bourdillon)
  22. Q47. The SI unit of pressure is:
    (a) Newton   b) Joule   c) Pascal   d) Watt)
  23. Q48. The Quit India Movement was launched in:
    (a) 1930   b) 1935   c) 1942   d) 1946)
  24. Q49. The Statue of Unity commemorates:
    (a) Mahatma Gandhi   b) Sardar Patel   c) B R Ambedkar   d) Nehru)
  25. Q50. The Election Commission of India is established under:
    (a) Article 315   b) Article 324   c) Article 338   d) Article 148)

Quantitative Aptitude (Q51-Q75)

  1. Q51. 35% of 720 is:
    (a) 242   b) 248   c) 252   d) 256)
  2. Q52. Simple interest on Rs 6,000 at 6% for 4 years:
    (a) Rs 1,340   b) Rs 1,440   c) Rs 1,540   d) Rs 1,640)
  3. Q53. A train 200 m long runs at 72 km/h. Time to pass a pole:
    (a) 8 s   b) 10 s   c) 12 s   d) 14 s)
  4. Q54. The average of 4, 11, 17 and 28 is:
    (a) 14   b) 15   c) 16   d) 17)
  5. Q55. Two numbers are in ratio 5:7 and sum to 96. The larger is:
    (a) 52   b) 54   c) 56   d) 58)
  6. Q56. An article costs Rs 640 and is sold at 15% profit. The selling price is:
    (a) Rs 726   b) Rs 730   c) Rs 736   d) Rs 742)
  7. Q57. If 15 workers finish a job in 10 days, 25 workers finish it in:
    (a) 5 days   b) 6 days   c) 7 days   d) 8 days)
  8. Q58. The square root of 1024 is:
    (a) 30   b) 32   c) 34   d) 36)
  9. Q59. A sum doubles itself in 6 years at simple interest. The rate is:
    (a) 15%   b) 16.67%   c) 17.5%   d) 18%)
  10. Q60. After a 25% discount an item sells for Rs 900. Its marked price was:
    (a) Rs 1,150   b) Rs 1,180   c) Rs 1,200   d) Rs 1,250)
  11. Q61. If x + 3 = 7, then 2x + 5 = ?
    (a) 11   b) 13   c) 15   d) 17)
  12. Q62. The LCM of 14 and 21 is:
    (a) 42   b) 84   c) 63   d) 21)
  13. Q63. The area of a circle of radius 21 cm (pi = 22/7) is:
    (a) 1,286 cm^2   b) 1,386 cm^2   c) 1,486 cm^2   d) 1,586 cm^2)
  14. Q64. A man earns Rs 25,000 and saves 12%. His savings are:
    (a) Rs 2,500   b) Rs 2,800   c) Rs 3,000   d) Rs 3,200)
  15. Q65. A car at 45 km/h covers how much in 2 h 20 min?
    (a) 95 km   b) 100 km   c) 105 km   d) 110 km)
  16. Q66. The average of the first 15 odd numbers is:
    (a) 14   b) 15   c) 16   d) 17)
  17. Q67. A 36-litre mixture has milk and water in ratio 5:1. The water is:
    (a) 5 L   b) 6 L   c) 7 L   d) 8 L)
  18. Q68. Two fair coins are tossed. P(both heads) = ?
    (a) 1/2   b) 1/3   c) 1/4   d) 3/4)
  19. Q69. A rectangle has perimeter 84 cm and length 26 cm. Its breadth is:
    (a) 14 cm   b) 16 cm   c) 18 cm   d) 20 cm)
  20. Q70. Compound interest on Rs 8,000 at 5% for 2 years is:
    (a) Rs 800   b) Rs 820   c) Rs 840   d) Rs 860)
  21. Q71. A does a job in 10 days, B in 15 days. Together they take:
    (a) 5 days   b) 6 days   c) 7 days   d) 8 days)
  22. Q72. Two successive discounts of 10% equal a single discount of:
    (a) 18%   b) 19%   c) 20%   d) 21%)
  23. Q73. If sin theta = 8/17, then cos theta = ?
    (a) 15/17   b) 8/15   c) 17/15   d) 15/8)
  24. Q74. Two angles of a triangle are 40 and 60 degrees. The third is:
    (a) 70   b) 75   c) 80   d) 85)
  25. Q75. A cube has volume 343 cm^3. Its total surface area is:
    (a) 262 cm^2   b) 276 cm^2   c) 294 cm^2   d) 308 cm^2)

English Comprehension (Q76-Q100)

  1. Q76. Choose the synonym of VITAL.
    (a) Optional   b) Essential   c) Minor   d) Weak)
  2. Q77. Choose the antonym of GUILTY.
    (a) Ashamed   b) Innocent   c) Sorry   d) Charged)
  3. Q78. Spot the error: The team (a) / are playing (b) / very well (c).
    (a) (a)   b) (b)   c) (c)   d) No error)
  4. Q79. Fill in: She is afraid ____ dogs.
    (a) from   b) of   c) with   d) to)
  5. Q80. One word for the study of stars:
    (a) Geology   b) Astronomy   c) Biology   d) Zoology)
  6. Q81. The idiom to spill the beans means:
    (a) To cook   b) To reveal a secret   c) To waste food   d) To hide)
  7. Q82. Choose the correctly spelt word:
    (a) Occassion   b) Occasion   c) Ocassion   d) Ocasion)
  8. Q83. Fill in: He is ____ good health.
    (a) in   b) on   c) at   d) of)
  9. Q84. Choose the synonym of MEEK.
    (a) Gentle   b) Bold   c) Rude   d) Loud)
  10. Q85. Choose the antonym of BARREN.
    (a) Dry   b) Fertile   c) Empty   d) Hard)
  11. Q86. Spot the error: I have (a) / seen him (b) / yesterday (c).
    (a) (a)   b) (b)   c) (c)   d) No error)
  12. Q87. One word for a person who eats only vegetables:
    (a) Carnivore   b) Vegetarian   c) Omnivore   d) Herbivore)
  13. Q88. The idiom at daggers drawn means:
    (a) Close friends   b) Openly hostile   c) Confused   d) Unarmed)
  14. Q89. Change to passive: They will complete the work.
    (a) The work will complete   b) The work will be completed   c) The work is completed   d) The work has been completed)
  15. Q90. Fill in: Each of the boys ____ done his work.
    (a) have   b) has   c) are   d) were)
  16. Q91. Choose the synonym of ZEAL.
    (a) Apathy   b) Enthusiasm   c) Anger   d) Silence)
  17. Q92. Choose the antonym of HUMBLE.
    (a) Modest   b) Arrogant   c) Polite   d) Simple)
  18. Q93. Choose the correct sentence:
    (a) It is I who is wrong   b) It is I who am wrong   c) It is me who is wrong   d) It is I who are wrong)
  19. Q94. One word for government by a single person:
    (a) Democracy   b) Monarchy   c) Anarchy   d) Federation)
  20. Q95. Fill in: He has lived here ____ 2019.
    (a) for   b) from   c) since   d) at)
  21. Q96. The idiom a white elephant means:
    (a) A rare pet   b) A costly useless possession   c) A lucky charm   d) A big house)
  22. Q97. Spot the error: One must do (a) / his duty (b) / honestly (c).
    (a) (a)   b) (b)   c) (c)   d) No error)
  23. Q98. Choose the synonym of ADJACENT.
    (a) Distant   b) Neighbouring   c) Opposite   d) Separate)
  24. Q99. Choose the antonym of SCARCITY.
    (a) Shortage   b) Abundance   c) Lack   d) Deficit)
  25. Q100. Change to indirect speech: She said, I am busy.
    (a) She said she is busy   b) She said that she was busy   c) She says she was busy   d) She said she will be busy)

Answer key

QuestionAnswer
Q1B
Q2C
Q3A
Q4C
Q5B
Q6B
Q7A
Q8B
Q9C
Q10D
Q11D
Q12C
Q13C
Q14C
Q15A
Q16B
Q17B
Q18C
Q19D
Q20A
Q21A
Q22B
Q23A
Q24B
Q25C
Q26B
Q27B
Q28B
Q29C
Q30C
Q31B
Q32B
Q33B
Q34B
Q35B
Q36C
Q37B
Q38C
Q39B
Q40B
Q41C
Q42B
Q43B
Q44B
Q45C
Q46A
Q47C
Q48C
Q49B
Q50B
Q51C
Q52B
Q53B
Q54B
Q55C
Q56C
Q57B
Q58B
Q59B
Q60C
Q61B
Q62A
Q63B
Q64C
Q65C
Q66B
Q67B
Q68C
Q69B
Q70B
Q71B
Q72B
Q73A
Q74C
Q75C
Q76B
Q77B
Q78B
Q79B
Q80B
Q81B
Q82B
Q83A
Q84A
Q85B
Q86A
Q87B
Q88B
Q89B
Q90B
Q91B
Q92B
Q93B
Q94B
Q95C
Q96B
Q97B
Q98B
Q99B
Q100B

Why each answer is correct

  1. Q1: Each term is x2 + 1: 79 x 2 + 1 = 159.
  2. Q2: Each term doubles: 56 x 2 = 112.
  3. Q3: First letter +1, second letter is first x 2 in position: E(5) -> J(10).
  4. Q4: All others are odd primes; 14 is even and composite.
  5. Q5: B2 + E5 + A1 + D4 = 12.
  6. Q6: Mother’s brother’s son is Ravi’s cousin.
  7. Q7: The 4 km legs cancel; net displacement is 3 km east.
  8. Q8: A petal is part of a flower as a wheel is part of a vehicle.
  9. Q9: Only the converse is certain: some animals are cats.
  10. Q10: Each term x 3: 54 x 3 = 162.
  11. Q11: The first three are flowers; apple is a fruit.
  12. Q12: M13 + O15 + O15 + N14 = 57.
  13. Q13: 4 parts = 48, one part 12; father = 36.
  14. Q14: |285 – 180| = 105 degrees.
  15. Q15: 15 days later: 15 mod 7 = 1, Saturday + 1 = Sunday.
  16. Q16: 35 – 14 + 1 = 22nd.
  17. Q17: 27 = 3^3 maps to 3^2 = 9; 64 = 4^3 maps to 4^2 = 16.
  18. Q18: Fibonacci: 5 + 8 = 13.
  19. Q19: 127 is the only prime; 121 = 11^2, 123 = 3 x 41 and 125 = 5^3.
  20. Q20: P-A-T-I-E-N-T reversed letter by letter gives TNEITAP.
  21. Q21: 6-8-10 right triangle.
  22. Q22: Cricket and football are distinct games inside the class of games.
  23. Q23: First letters +2 (A,C,E,G), second letters -2 (Z,X,V,T).
  24. Q24: Three places ahead of 8th is 5th.
  25. Q25: 64, 125, 343 are perfect cubes; 100 is a perfect square, not a cube.
  26. Q26: Article 21 – no person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty except by procedure established by law.
  27. Q27: The Vikram lander touched down near the lunar south pole.
  28. Q28: Kalpana Chawla flew on Columbia in 1997.
  29. Q29: South Korea uses the won.
  30. Q30: The CJI administers the President’s oath.
  31. Q31: It is Indian cinema’s highest honour.
  32. Q32: The Indian share of the Sundarbans is in West Bengal.
  33. Q33: The Ganges river dolphin (Platanista gangetica).
  34. Q34: Universal access to bank accounts and financial services.
  35. Q35: Energy is released by splitting heavy nuclei (fission).
  36. Q36: The Bharat Ratna.
  37. Q37: The mango.
  38. Q38: Article 76 – the government’s chief legal advisor.
  39. Q39: Jointly hosted by the USA, Canada and Mexico.
  40. Q40: Dalhousie annexed states without a male heir under it.
  41. Q41: It is in Kerala (Palakkad district).
  42. Q42: Jog (Gerusoppa) Falls is on the Sharavathi in Karnataka.
  43. Q43: Dr Rajendra Prasad (1950-1962).
  44. Q44: Chlorophyll reflects green wavelengths.
  45. Q45: The 73rd Amendment, 1992 (Part IX).
  46. Q46: Edmund Hillary and Tenzing Norgay, May 1953.
  47. Q47: One pascal = one newton per square metre.
  48. Q48: August 1942 – do or die.
  49. Q49: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, at Kevadia, Gujarat.
  50. Q50: Article 324.
  51. Q51: 720 x 0.35 = 252.
  52. Q52: 6000 x 6 x 4/100 = Rs 1,440.
  53. Q53: 72 km/h = 20 m/s; 200/20 = 10 s.
  54. Q54: Sum 60 / 4 = 15.
  55. Q55: 12 parts = 96; larger = 7 x 8 = 56.
  56. Q56: 640 x 1.15 = Rs 736.
  57. Q57: 150 worker-days / 25 = 6 days.
  58. Q58: 32 x 32 = 1024.
  59. Q59: 100% in 6 years = 16.67% per annum.
  60. Q60: 900 / 0.75 = Rs 1,200.
  61. Q61: x = 4, so 2 x 4 + 5 = 13.
  62. Q62: 14 = 2×7; 21 = 3×7; LCM = 2x3x7 = 42.
  63. Q63: 22/7 x 21 x 21 = 1,386 cm^2.
  64. Q64: 25,000 x 0.12 = Rs 3,000.
  65. Q65: 45 x 7/3 = 105 km.
  66. Q66: n^2 / n = n = 15.
  67. Q67: 6 parts = 36; water = 1 x 6 = 6 L.
  68. Q68: One favourable of four outcomes.
  69. Q69: 2(26 + b) = 84; b = 16 cm.
  70. Q70: 8000 x 1.1025 = 8,820; CI = Rs 820.
  71. Q71: 1/10 + 1/15 = 1/6 – 6 days.
  72. Q72: 1 – 0.9 x 0.9 = 0.19 = 19%.
  73. Q73: 8-15-17 right triangle.
  74. Q74: 180 – 100 = 80 degrees.
  75. Q75: Side 7; TSA = 6 x 49 = 294 cm^2.
  76. Q76: Vital means essential.
  77. Q77: Guilty vs innocent.
  78. Q78: The team is playing – collective noun takes a singular verb here.
  79. Q79: Afraid of is the fixed collocation.
  80. Q80: Astronomy.
  81. Q81: To disclose a secret.
  82. Q82: Occasion – double c, single s.
  83. Q83: In good health.
  84. Q84: Meek means gentle.
  85. Q85: Barren vs fertile.
  86. Q86: With yesterday, use the simple past: I saw him.
  87. Q87: A vegetarian.
  88. Q88: Bitterly hostile.
  89. Q89: Future simple passive: will be completed.
  90. Q90: Each takes a singular verb: has.
  91. Q91: Zeal means enthusiasm.
  92. Q92: Humble vs arrogant.
  93. Q93: Who refers to I, so the verb is am.
  94. Q94: Monarchy (one ruler).
  95. Q95: Since with a point of time.
  96. Q96: Something expensive but useless.
  97. Q97: One must do one’s duty, not his.
  98. Q98: Adjacent means neighbouring.
  99. Q99: Scarcity vs abundance.
  100. Q100: Present becomes past: was busy.

This is Day 5 of the countdown series – the final full mock before the exam. Pair it with Day 1 to see your week’s progress, check the last-24-hours plan, and come back tomorrow for exam-day pointers. All the best.

Sources and further reading

Quick revision

  • Q1.: 4, 9, 19, 39, 79, ?(a) 149   b) 159   c) 169   d) 179)
  • Q2.: 7, 14, 28, 56, ?(a) 96   b) 108   c) 112   d) 124)
  • Q3.: BD, CF, DH, ?(a) EJ   b) EI   c) FJ   d) EK)
  • Q4.: Odd one out: 3, 5, 11, 14, 17(a) 3   b) 11   c) 14   d) 17)
  • Q5.: If CAB = 6 (letter-position sum), then BEAD = ?(a) 10   b) 12   c) 14   d) 16)
  • Q6.: Pointing to a man, Ravi says: he is my mother’s brother’s son.
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