IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test Day 7: 100 Questions with Full Solutions

Quick answer: Day 7 of the IBPS PO Prelims countdown: a full 100-question mock in the real pattern – Reasoning 35, Quant 35, English 30, each in its own 20-minute window, 100 marks total at 0.25 negative marking – with the complete answer key and one-line explanation for every question. Prelims expected 3 October 2026: 19 days to go.

What is the pattern you are practising?

Three sections, three 20-minute windows – English Language 30 questions, Quantitative Aptitude 35, Reasoning Ability 35 – 100 questions and 100 marks in 60 minutes, 0.25 penalty per wrong answer and sectional cutoffs (source: official IBPS website). You are a week into the daily series now – compare this paper with Day 1 and watch the same sections get faster.

Reasoning Ability (Q1-Q33, 20 minutes)

1. Q1. 5, 10, 20, 40, 80, ?
   (a) 140   b) 150   c) 160   d) 170)
2. Q2. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, ?
   (a) 35   b) 36   c) 37   d) 38)
3. Q3. If DOG = 23 (letter-position sum), then CODE = ?
   (a) 25   b) 26   c) 27   d) 28)
4. Q4. Odd one out: 18, 24, 32, 42
   (a) 18   b) 24   c) 32   d) 42)
5. Q5. A is the son of B, B is the sister of C, C is the daughter of D. How is A related to D?
   (a) Grandson   b) Son   c) Nephew   d) Cannot be determined)
6. Q6. A woman facing west turns right, then right again, She now faces:
   (a) North   b) South   c) East   d) West)
7. Q7. If BOOK is coded CPPL, LOOK is coded:
   (a) MPPL   b) MPPM   c) MPQL   d) NPPL)
8. Q8. P is heavier than Q; R is lighter than Q; S is heavier than P, Lightest?
   (a) P   b) Q   c) R   d) S)
9. Q9. Series: J, L, N, P, ?
   (a) Q   b) R   c) S   d) T)
10. Q10. Odd: 10, 25, 45, 65
    (a) 10   b) 25   c) 45   d) 65)
11. Q11. In a class of 45, M is 19th from the left, Position from right:
    (a) 26th   b) 27th   c) 28th   d) 29th)
12. Q12. All teachers are graduates, Some graduates are researchers, Which follows?
    (a) Some teachers are researchers   b) All researchers are graduates   c) Some graduates are teachers   d) None follows)
13. Q13. 4, 9, 25, 49, ?
    (a) 64   b) 81   c) 100   d) 121)
14. Q14. A man walks 8 km east, 6 km north, Distance from start:
    (a) 9 km   b) 10 km   c) 11 km   d) 14 km)
15. Q15. BD, CE, DF, ?
    (a) EG   b) EH   c) FG   d) EF)
16. Q16. If STAR = 58 (letter-position sum), then PLANET = ?
    (a) 66   b) 67   c) 68   d) 69)
17. Q17. Odd: 100, 400, 900, 1000
    (a) 100   b) 400   c) 900   d) 1000)
18. Q18. Five friends: V is left of W; X is right of W; Y is between V and W; Z is at far right, Second from left:
    (a) V   b) Y   c) W   d) X)
19. Q19. 1, 4, 27, 256, ?
    (a) 3125   b) 625   c) 1024   d) 2401)
20. Q20. If GREEN means STOP, STOP means GO, GO means SLOW – what do you do at GREEN?
    (a) Go   b) Stop   c) Slow   d) Nothing)
21. Q21. My sister’s mother’s only child is:
    (a) Me   b) My sister   c) My cousin   d) Cannot be determined)
22. Q22. Odd one out: 21, 33, 45, 54
    (a) 21   b) 33   c) 45   d) 54)
23. Q23. Series: 3, 10, 29, 66, ?
    (a) 120   b) 123   c) 127   d) 130)
24. Q24. A goes 5 km north, 5 km right (east), 5 km south, He is:
    (a) At start   b) 5 km east   c) 5 km west   d) 10 km east)
25. Q25. Statements: X >= Y, Y < Z, Relation X vs Z:
    (a) X > Z   b) X < Z   c) X = Z   d) Cannot be determined)
26. Q26. In a certain code, TEACHER is written as QBXZEBO. How is CHILD written in that code?
    (a) ZEFIA   b) ZEFHA   c) YFEGA   d) ZEGIA)
27. Q27. A is 25th from either end of a row, Total people:
    (a) 48   b) 49   c) 50   d) 51)
28. Q28. No cat is a dog, All dogs are animals, Which follows?
    (a) No cat is an animal   b) Some animals are not cats   c) All animals are dogs   d) Some cats are dogs)
29. Q29. Series: 64, 32, 16, 8, ?
    (a) 2   b) 3   c) 4   d) 6)
30. Q30. Pointing to a photograph, a woman says: “She is the daughter of my mother’s father’s only daughter.” How is the girl in the photograph related to the woman?
    (a) Sister   b) Niece   c) Cousin   d) Mother)
31. Q31. Odd one: Keyboard, Mouse, Monitor, CPU – by input vs output:
    (a) Keyboard   b) Mouse   c) Monitor   d) CPU)
32. Q32. A clock shows 3:15, The angle between hands:
    (a) 7.5 degrees   b) 15 degrees   c) 30 degrees   d) 0 degrees)
33. Q33. If day before yesterday was Thursday, when will Sunday be?
    (a) Today   b) Tomorrow   c) Day after tomorrow   d) Two days after tomorrow)

Quantitative Aptitude (Q34-Q67, 20 minutes)

1. Q34. 18% of 350 = ?
   (a) 61   b) 62   c) 63   d) 64)
2. Q35. SI on Rs 7,200 at 5% for 3 years:
   (a) Rs 1,040   b) Rs 1,060   c) Rs 1,080   d) Rs 1,100)
3. Q36. CP Rs 480, SP Rs 552, Profit %?
   (a) 12%   b) 13%   c) 15%   d) 16%)
4. Q37. Train 240 m at 72 km/h crosses a platform 360 m in:
   (a) 20 s   b) 25 s   c) 30 s   d) 35 s)
5. Q38. Average of 7 numbers is 22; one number 28 removed, New average?
   (a) 20   b) 21   c) 21.5   d) 22)
6. Q39. Ratio 3:5, difference 14, Larger number:
   (a) 21   b) 28   c) 35   d) 42)
7. Q40. √196 = ?
   (a) 12   b) 13   c) 14   d) 16)
8. Q41. A 8 days, B 24 days, Together:
   (a) 5 days   b) 6 days   c) 7 days   d) 8 days)
9. Q42. Price up 25%, then down 20%, Net:
   (a) No change   b) 5% up   c) 5% down   d) 2.5% up)
10. Q43. Milk:water 5:3, 32 L, Milk:
    (a) 18 L   b) 20 L   c) 22 L   d) 24 L)
11. Q44. 3x + 4 = 2x + 11. x =
    (a) 5   b) 6   c) 7   d) 8)
12. Q45. LCM of 15 and 25:
    (a) 50   b) 60   c) 70   d) 75)
13. Q46. Area of square with diagonal 12 cm:
    (a) 36 cm^2   b) 48 cm^2   c) 60 cm^2   d) 72 cm^2)
14. Q47. A sum of Rs 9,000 becomes 10,350 in 3 years at SI, Rate:
    (a) 4%   b) 4.5%   c) 5%   d) 5.5%)
15. Q48. Two dice: P(sum = 5)?
    (a) 1/9   b) 5/36   c) 1/6   d) 1/12)
16. Q49. Markup 40% on Rs 500, then 25% discount, Final SP:
    (a) Rs 500   b) Rs 525   c) Rs 550   d) Rs 560)
17. Q50. 60 km in 1.5 hours, Speed:
    (a) 36 km/h   b) 38 km/h   c) 40 km/h   d) 45 km/h)
18. Q51. Sum of first 25 even numbers:
    (a) 620   b) 640   c) 650   d) 660)
19. Q52. Rectangle area 240, width 12, Perimeter:
    (a) 60 cm   b) 62 cm   c) 64 cm   d) 66 cm)
20. Q53. A:B = 2:5, B:C = 3:4, A:C = ?
    (a) 3:10   b) 2:5   c) 3:8   d) 5:8)
21. Q54. Salary 24,000; saves one-eighth, Savings:
    (a) Rs 2,500   b) Rs 3,000   c) Rs 3,200   d) Rs 3,500)
22. Q55. 0.5 x 0.004 = ?
    (a) 0.2   b) 0.02   c) 0.002   d) 0.0002)
23. Q56. Angles ratio 1:2:6, Largest:
    (a) 100   b) 110   c) 120   d) 140)
24. Q57. Pipe A fills a tank in 12 hours; pipe B fills it in 4 hours, Together:
    (a) 2 hours   b) 3 hours   c) 4 hours   d) 6 hours)
25. Q58. Compound interest on Rs 10,000 at 10% for 3 years:
    (a) Rs 3,300   b) Rs 3,310   c) Rs 3,331   d) Rs 3,360)
26. Q59. Average age 30 students = 14; with teacher = 15, Teacher:
    (a) 42   b) 44   c) 45   d) 46)
27. Q60. Selling price 720 at 20% profit, CP:
    (a) Rs 576   b) Rs 590   c) Rs 600   d) Rs 614)
28. Q61. 3 consecutive odd integers sum 51, Middle:
    (a) 15   b) 17   c) 19   d) 21)
29. Q62. Sphere radius 3: volume (pi=22/7) 4/3 pi r^3 =
    (a) 108 cm^3   b) 112 cm^3   c) 116 cm^3   d) 113.14 cm^3)
30. Q63. If a:b = 3:4, find (2a+3b):(3a+4b)
    (a) 16:18   b) 17:24   c) 18:25   d) 6:7)
31. Q64. Population 4,000 grows 15%, New:
    (a) 4,500   b) 4,550   c) 4,600   d) 4,700)
32. Q65. 40% of a number is 56, The number:
    (a) 130   b) 135   c) 140   d) 145)
33. Q66. Cylinder volume 1,540, radius 7, Height (pi = 22/7):
    (a) 8 cm   b) 9 cm   c) 10 cm   d) 11 cm)
34. Q67. Two items Rs 400 each: one 25% profit, one 25% loss, Net:
    (a) No change   b) 6.25% loss   c) 5% loss   d) 6.25% profit)

English Language (Q68-Q100, 20 minutes)

1. Q68. Synonym of ABUNDANT.
   (a) Plentiful   b) Rare   c) Costly   d) Hidden)
2. Q69. Antonym of ANCIENT.
   (a) Old   b) Modern   c) Antique   d) Aged)
3. Q70. Fill: He apologised ____ his behaviour.
   (a) for   b) of   c) on   d) about)
4. Q71. Spot error: One of my friend (a) / is waiting (b) / outside (c).
   (a) (a)   b) (b)   c) (c)   d) No error)
5. Q72. One word for a place where books are kept:
   (a) Museum   b) Library   c) Archive   d) Gallery)
6. Q73. Idiom: once in a blue moon =
   (a) Regularly   b) Very rarely   c) At night   d) Never)
7. Q74. Correct spelling:
   (a) Privilege   b) Priviledge   c) Privelege   d) Privelige)
8. Q75. Fill: She is married ____ a doctor.
   (a) with   b) to   c) from   d) by)
9. Q76. Synonym of CANDID.
   (a) Rude   b) Frank   c) Shy   d) Dull)
10. Q77. Antonym of EXPAND.
    (a) Extend   b) Contract   c) Enlarge   d) Inflate)
11. Q78. Spot error: He don’t (a) / know the answer (b) / yet (c).
    (a) (a)   b) (b)   c) (c)   d) No error)
12. Q79. One word: government by officials – a word also for excessive rule-following:
    (a) Bureaucracy   b) Democracy   c) Autocracy   d) Anarchy)
13. Q80. Idiom: to burn the midnight oil =
    (a) To waste resources   b) To work late   c) To sleep early   d) To celebrate)
14. Q81. Passive: They have completed the project.
    (a) The project has been completed   b) The project is completed   c) The project was completed   d) The project complete)
15. Q82. Fill: The committee ___ its decision tomorrow.
    (a) announce   b) announces   c) announcing   d) have announced)
16. Q83. Synonym of FRUGAL.
    (a) Wasteful   b) Thrifty   c) Proud   d) Hasty)
17. Q84. Antonym of SCARCE.
    (a) Rare   b) Plentiful   c) Little   d) Slight)
18. Q85. Indirect: He said, “I am reading.”
    (a) He said he is reading   b) He said that he was reading   c) He says he read   d) He said he reads)
19. Q86. Fill: I have known her ___ 2018.
    (a) for   b) since   c) from   d) at)
20. Q87. One word: a speech made on the spot:
    (a) Prepared   b) Extempore   c) Written   d) Rehearsed)
21. Q88. Idiom: to add fuel to the fire =
    (a) To help   b) To worsen a situation   c) To extinguish   d) To cook)
22. Q89. Spot error: The scissors is (a) / on the table (b) / near the window (c).
    (a) (a)   b) (b)   c) (c)   d) No error)
23. Q90. Synonym of TIMID.
    (a) Bold   b) Shy   c) Loud   d) Rough)
24. Q91. Antonym of PERMIT.
    (a) Allow   b) Forbid   c) Grant   d) Accept)
25. Q92. Fill: Neither of the answers ___ correct.
    (a) are   b) were   c) is   d) have)
26. Q93. Correct spelling:
    (a) Maintainance   b) Maintenance   c) Maintanance   d) Maintenence)
27. Q94. One word: one who can use both hands equally:
    (a) Ambidextrous   b) Ambiguous   c) Ambivalent   d) Dexterous)
28. Q95. Idiom: a bolt from the blue =
    (a) Expected news   b) A sudden shock   c) Lightning   d) A plan)
29. Q96. Spot error: She is more smarter (a) / than her brother (b) / in maths (c).
    (a) (a)   b) (b)   c) (c)   d) No error)
30. Q97. Synonym of VERBOSE.
    (a) Brief   b) Wordy   c) Silent   d) Clear)
31. Q98. Indirect: “I finished the work,” he said.
    (a) He said he finished the work   b) He said that he had finished the work   c) He says he finished   d) He said he finishes)
32. Q99. A shopkeeper marks an item 40% above cost and then gives a 25% discount. The result is:
    (a) 5% profit   b) 5% loss   c) 10% profit   d) no profit, no loss)
33. Q100. Choose the correctly spelt word:
    (a) Occassion   b) Occasion   c) Ocasion   d) Occassionn)

Answer key

Why each answer is correct

1. Q1: Each term doubles: 80 x 2 = 160.
2. Q2: Add odd numbers 3, 5, 7, 9, then 11: 26 + 11 = 37.
3. Q3: C3 + O15 + D4 + E5 = 27.
4. Q4: 18, 24 and 42 are all divisible by 6; 32 is not — that is the odd one out.
5. Q5: B and C are D’s daughters; A, B’s son, is D’s grandson.
6. Q6: West -> right (north) -> right (east).
7. Q7: Each letter +1: L-M, O-P, O-P, K-L.
8. Q8: S > P > Q > R: R is lightest.
9. Q9: Each letter +2: P + 2 = R.
10. Q10: The last three are multiples of 5 ending in 5; 10 ends in 0.
11. Q11: 45 – 19 + 1 = 27th.
12. Q12: The converse of the first statement is certain.
13. Q13: Squares of primes: 2, 3, 5, 7, then 11: 121.
14. Q14: 8-6-10 right triangle.
15. Q15: First letter +1, second letter +1: D-E, F-G.
16. Q16: P16 + L12 + A1 + N14 + E5 + T20 = 68.
17. Q17: 100, 400, 900 are perfect squares of 10, 20, 30; 1000 is not.
18. Q18: Order: V Y W X Z – second from left is Y.
19. Q19: Powers: 1^1, 2^2, 3^3, 4^4, then 5^5 = 3125.
20. Q20: By the code, GREEN means STOP.
21. Q21: Sister’s mother is my mother; her only child (the speaker) is me.
22. Q22: 21, 33 and 45 are odd numbers; 54 is even.
23. Q23: Pattern n^3 + 2: 1+2, 8+2, 27+2, 64+2, then 125+2 = 127.
24. Q24: North and south cancel; net 5 km east.
25. Q25: X is at least Y which is below Z; X and Z unordered.
26. Q26: Each letter moves three steps back: TEACHER → QBXZEBO, so CHILD → ZEFIA.
27. Q27: 25 + 25 – 1 = 49.
28. Q28: Every dog is an animal no cat is, so some animals (the dogs) are not cats.
29. Q29: Each term halves: 8 / 2 = 4.
30. Q30: Mother’s father’s only daughter is my mother; her daughter is my sister.
31. Q31: Monitor is output; keyboard and mouse are input (CPU is processing).
32. Q32: Minute at 90; hour at 97.5: difference 7.5 degrees.
33. Q33: Day before yesterday Thu means today is Saturday; Sunday is tomorrow.
34. Q34: 350 x 0.18 = 63.
35. Q35: 7200 x 5 x 3/100 = Rs 1,080.
36. Q36: 72/480 = 15%.
37. Q37: (240+360)/20 m/s = 30 s.
38. Q38: (154-28)/6 = 21.
39. Q39: 2 parts = 14; larger = 5 x 7 = 35.
40. Q40: 14 x 14 = 196.
41. Q41: 1/8 + 1/24 = 1/6: 6 days.
42. Q42: 1.25 x 0.8 = 1.00.
43. Q43: 8 parts = 32; milk = 5 x 4 = 20 L.
44. Q44: x = 7.
45. Q45: 15 = 3×5; 25 = 5^2; LCM = 75.
46. Q46: d^2/2 = 144/2 = 72 cm^2.
47. Q47: 450/9000 = 5% per year.
48. Q48: Four favourable of 36 = 1/9.
49. Q49: 500 x 1.4 x 0.75 = Rs 525.
50. Q50: 60/1.5 = 40 km/h.
51. Q51: n(n+1) = 25 x 26 = 650.
52. Q52: Length 20; 2(20+12) = 64 cm.
53. Q53: A:B:C = 6:15:20; A:C = 6:20 = 3:10.
54. Q54: 24,000/8 = Rs 3,000.
55. Q55: 5 x 4 = 20; four decimals: 0.0020.
56. Q56: 9 parts = 180; largest = 6 x 20 = 120.
57. Q57: 1/12 + 1/4 = 1/3: 3 hours.
58. Q58: 10,000 x 1.331 = 13,310; CI = Rs 3,310.
59. Q59: Combined total: 31 × 15 = 465; students only: 30 × 14 = 420; teacher = 465 – 420 = 45 years.
60. Q60: 720/1.2 = Rs 600.
61. Q61: 15+17+19 = 51; middle 17.
62. Q62: 4/3 x 22/7 x 27 = 792/7 = 113.14 cm^3.
63. Q63: Take a=3, b=4: (6+12):(9+16) = 18:25.
64. Q64: 4000 x 1.15 = 4,600.
65. Q65: 56/0.4 = 140.
66. Q66: 1540 x 7/(22 x 49) = 10 cm.
67. Q67: Equal SPs, equal percent: loss of 25^2/100 = 6.25%.
68. Q68: Abundant = plentiful.
69. Q69: Ancient vs modern.
70. Q70: Apologise for.
71. Q71: One of my friends.
72. Q72: A library.
73. Q73: Very rarely.
74. Q74: Privilege.
75. Q75: Married to.
76. Q76: Candid = frank.
77. Q77: Expand vs contract.
78. Q78: He doesn’t.
79. Q79: Bureaucracy.
80. Q80: To work late into the night.
81. Q81: Present perfect passive: has been completed.
82. Q82: Committee (one body) takes a singular verb.
83. Q83: Frugal = thrifty.
84. Q84: Scarcity vs plenty.
85. Q85: Present continuous backshifts to past continuous.
86. Q86: Since with a point in time.
87. Q87: Extempore.
88. Q88: To make matters worse.
89. Q89: Scissors are – plural noun.
90. Q90: Timid = shy.
91. Q91: Permit vs forbid.
92. Q92: Neither takes a singular verb.
93. Q93: Maintenance.
94. Q94: Ambidextrous.
95. Q95: A complete surprise.
96. Q96: Double comparative: remove more.
97. Q97: Verbose = wordy.
98. Q98: Simple past backshifts to past perfect.
99. Q99: CP 100 → MP 140 → SP = 140 × 0.75 = 105: a 5% profit.
100. Q100: “Occasion” has double c, single s — the classic spelling trap.

Day 7 of the daily series – fresh questions every day until exam day. Keep the error log honest and the section timers sacred; the 19 remaining days are enough to convert every recurring miss into a mark.

Sources and further reading

• IBPS – official website
• Institute of Banking Personnel Selection – reference overview

Contents: this page covers IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test (September 16, 2026) with worked notes, tables, a checklist and a rapid recap.

Exam Checklist

• Fix the attempt order before practice
• Honour the sectional caps
• In addition, review every miss the same evening
• Track three numbers weekly
• Sleep at exam hours in the final week

FAQ

How much of this page is exam-relevant?

Nearly all of it, because the tables and worked items follow the standard question register for this subject.

When should I revisit?

Day three and day seven after the first read, with the drill spoken aloud once.

The Thirty-Second Recap

One page. One topic. Therefore, read the tables twice. Speak the recap once. Moreover, the numbers carry the marks. The names carry the traps. However, revisits beat rereads. Finally, day three and day seven. That is all.

Explain It Simply

Think of this page as a map of one neighbourhood. The big streets are the tables. The landmarks are the numbers. The street names are the terms in bold. However big the city feels, this one neighbourhood fits in a pocket, and a pocket map is what exam week needs. Therefore, walk it once fully, then walk only the streets you forget, and by the second walk the neighbourhood feels like home.

Pocket the map, not the whole city: exams reward the walkable version of every topic.

Abbreviations That Recur Here

• PO.
• DOG.
• BOOK.
• CPPL.
• MPPL.

Key Takeaways

In conclusion, IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test (September 16, 2026) compresses into its tables, its numbers and its checklist above. To summarize, revise twice this week, speak the recap once, and let the acronyms carry the recall. Therefore, this page banks itself in ten honest minutes.

The Framework Line to Memorise

This paper obeys the same protocol as Day 8: compliance with caps, validation of locks, and authorization from the notebook before the framework of attempts changes by even one question.

The Trend Note

Moreover, this block returns in papers with a fixed frame, therefore rehearse the frame itself and not just its facts. In addition, the strongest answers name their structure before they fill it.

The Interface Reality

However wide the material feels, the method stays narrow: tables twice, drill once, revisit on day three and day seven.

IBPS, PO, PYQ, DI, RC, LR, GA, UI and EBLR recur across every page of this countdown series.

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• RBI's Monetary Policy Toolkit: Repo, SDF, MSF, OMO and the CRR-SLR Pair Explained
• IBPS PO Prelims Reasoning: The 35-Marks Section Plan for a 20-Plus Score

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