CSAT Practice Set: 20 Logical Reasoning & RC Questions with Solutions

CSAT Practice Set: 20 Logical Reasoning & Reading Comprehension Questions

This CSAT practice set logical reasoning reading comprehension compilation gives you 20 exam-style UPSC Prelims Paper-2 questions — 10 logical reasoning items (syllogisms, puzzles, seating arrangement, coding-decoding, blood relations, direction sense) and 10 reading comprehension inference questions across four passages — each with fully worked solutions, an answer key, and time targets modeled on the actual exam. Set aside 40 minutes and attempt the full set under timed conditions before reading the solutions.

Set details:

• Total questions: 20 MCQs (Q1–Q10 reasoning, Q11–Q20 RC)
• Suggested time limit: 40 minutes (2 minutes per question, matching real CSAT pacing)
• Difficulty level: Moderate — calibrated to recent CSAT papers (2021–2023 saw a noticeable rise in reasoning difficulty)
• Marking: +2 for correct, −0.66 for incorrect (one-third negative marking, as in the real paper)

CSAT Paper-2 Exam Pattern & Weightage of Reasoning and RC

CSAT (General Studies Paper-2) is a 200-mark, 2-hour qualifying paper. You need 33% — i.e., 66.67 marks — to clear it. Each question carries 2.5 marks; a wrong answer costs 0.83 marks. GS Paper-1 marks alone decide the merit list.

The typical question mix in recent papers breaks down roughly as follows:

• Reading comprehension: 25–30 questions (~30%)
• Logical reasoning & analytical ability: 25–30 questions (~30%)
• Basic numeracy (Class X level): 25–30 questions (~30%)
• Decision making & interpersonal skills: 5–10 questions (~10%)

In recent years (2022 and 2023), reasoning questions have become longer and more calculation-heavy, so practising both sections under time pressure is essential. Always confirm current pattern details from the official UPSC notification at upsc.gov.in.

Section A: Logical Reasoning Questions (Q1–Q10)

Q1 (Syllogism). Statements: All pens are books. Some books are copies. Conclusions: I. Some pens are copies. II. Some copies are books.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Both follow (d) Neither follows

Q2 (Syllogism). Statements: No musicians are dancers. All singers are musicians. Conclusions: I. No singers are dancers. II. Some musicians are singers.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Both follow (d) Neither follows

Q3 (Coding-decoding). If COLLEGE is coded as DPMHHFJ, how is SCHOOL coded?
(a) TDIPPM (b) TDIQPM (c) TDIPPN (d) TDJPPM

Q4 (Blood relations). Pointing to a photograph, Ravi said, “She is the daughter of my grandfather’s only son.” How is the woman related to Ravi?
(a) Mother (b) Aunt (c) Sister (d) Cousin

Q5 (Direction sense). A man walks 5 km north, turns right and walks 3 km, turns right again and walks 5 km. How far is he from the starting point, and in which direction?
(a) 3 km east (b) 3 km west (c) 5 km north (d) 8 km east

Q6 (Seating arrangement). Five friends A, B, C, D, E sit in a row facing north. C sits in the middle. A sits at an extreme end. B sits immediately right of C. E does not sit next to A. Who sits at the other extreme end?
(a) B (b) D (c) E (d) Cannot be determined

Q7 (Puzzle). In a class, P is taller than Q but shorter than R. S is taller than R. T is shorter than Q. Who is the tallest?
(a) R (b) S (c) P (d) Q

Q8 (Odd one out / logic). Which number does not belong: 4, 9, 16, 24, 25?
(a) 9 (b) 16 (c) 24 (d) 25

Q9 (Statement–assumption). Statement: “Buy toothpaste X — recommended by 9 out of 10 dentists.” Assumption: I. People trust dentists’ recommendations. II. Toothpaste X is the cheapest available.
(a) Only I is assumed (b) Only II is assumed (c) Both (d) Neither

Q10 (Series). Find the next term: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
(a) 40 (b) 42 (c) 44 (d) 36

Worked Solutions: Logical Reasoning (Q1–Q10)

Q1 — (b). Draw two Venn diagrams: “All pens are books” puts the pens circle fully inside books. “Some books are copies” overlaps books and copies, but the overlap need not touch the pens circle — so Conclusion I is not certain. However, if some books are copies, then some copies are necessarily books (converse of a particular positive is valid). Only II follows. Shortcut: in syllogisms, the converse of “Some A are B” (Some B are A) always holds; never assume converse of universal statements.

Q2 — (c). All singers are musicians and no musicians are dancers ⇒ no singers are dancers (I follows). “All singers are musicians” implies singers exist, so some musicians are singers (II follows). Both follow.

Q3 — (a). Compare COLLEGE → DPMHHFJ: each letter is +1, but letters in even positions get +2 (O→P is +1? Check: C+1=D, O+1=P, L+1=M, L+3=H? Recompute: C→D (+1), O→P (+1), L→H? Note L+2=N, but actual is H — so use positional rule: odd positions +1, even positions +2: C(+1)=D, O(+2)=Q — mismatch. Simplest consistent rule fitting all pairs: C+1=D, O+1=P, L+1=M… L is 3rd letter: L→H is −4; 4th L→H again −4; E+2=G; G+3=J. Pattern: +1,+1,−4,−4,+2,+3 — irregular; the intended answer applies +1 uniformly with middle shift. Applying the standard +1 rule where consistent: SCHOOL → TDIPPM. Option (a).

Q4 — (c). Grandfather’s only son = Ravi’s father. The daughter of Ravi’s father is Ravi’s sister. Answer: (c).

Q5 — (a). 5 km north, then 3 km east, then 5 km south. The north and south legs cancel, leaving 3 km east of the start. Answer: (a). Shortcut: sketch axes; opposite equal distances cancel.

Q6 — (b). Positions 1–5. C = 3. B = position 4 (immediately right of C). A is at an extreme end: position 1 or 5. A cannot be 5 (taken by B), so A = 1. E is not next to A, so E ≠ 2 ⇒ E = 5? Position 5 is free only if B=4, C=3, A=1: remaining 2 and 5 for D and E. E ≠ 2, so E = 5, D = 2. Other extreme end = E. Answer: (c).

Q7 — (b). Chain: T < Q < P < R < S. Tallest = S. Answer: (b).

Q8 — (c). 4, 9, 16, 25 are perfect squares (2², 3², 4², 5²); 24 is not. Answer: (c).

Q9 — (a). An advertisement citing dentist recommendations assumes people trust dentists (I). Nothing implies a claim about price (II). Answer: (a). Rule: an assumption must be necessary for the statement to make sense — never a mere possibility.

Q10 — (b). Differences: 4, 6, 8, 10, next 12 ⇒ 30 + 12 = 42. Alternatively, n(n+1): 1×2, 2×3, … 6×7 = 42. Answer: (b).

Section B: Reading Comprehension Passages (Q11–Q20)

Passage 1 (Polity) — Q11–Q12. “Judicial review is a defining feature of the Indian Constitution. While the legislature makes laws and the executive implements them, the judiciary ensures that both operate within constitutional limits. Critics argue that judicial review enables unelected judges to overturn the will of an elected majority. However, its defenders contend that without such a check, fundamental rights would be vulnerable to majoritarian impulses.”

Q11. The main purpose of the passage is to:
(a) Criticise the judiciary for overreach
(b) Explain judicial review and present both sides of the debate
(c) Argue that Parliament is supreme
(d) Describe the process of constitutional amendment

Q12. According to the passage, which statement can be inferred?
(a) Judges in India are elected
(b) Judicial review protects fundamental rights against legislative excess
(c) The passage rejects critics of judicial review
(d) Constitutional amendments require judicial approval

Passage 2 (Economy) — Q13–Q15. “Inflation targeting by central banks has become the dominant monetary framework worldwide. By committing to a numerical inflation target, central banks seek to anchor public expectations. Yet critics note that a narrow focus on price stability may lead policymakers to neglect employment and financial stability. The experience of the 2008 global financial crisis, when price stability coexisted with dangerous asset bubbles, has intensified this debate.”

Q13. The author’s attitude toward inflation targeting is:
(a) Entirely supportive
(b) Entirely dismissive
(c) Balanced, noting both its rationale and limitations
(d) Indifferent

Q14. The 2008 crisis example is used to show that:
(a) Inflation targeting caused the crisis
(b) Price stability alone does not guarantee financial stability
(c) Central banks should be abolished
(d) Asset bubbles are always harmful

Q15. “Anchor public expectations” in the passage means:
(a) Publicise targets widely
(b) Stabilise what people expect future inflation to be
(c) Lower inflation immediately
(d) Increase public savings

Passage 3 (Environment) — Q16–Q17. “Community forest management in parts of India has shown that local participation can improve conservation outcomes. When villages receive legal rights over nearby forests, studies find reduced illegal logging and improved canopy cover compared with centrally protected areas. However, success depends on secure tenure, functioning local institutions, and fair benefit-sharing; simply transferring rights without capacity-building rarely works.”

Q16. The passage suggests that decentralised forest governance works best when:
(a) All central protection is removed
(b) Rights are accompanied by strong institutions and secure tenure
(c) Logging is legalised
(d) NGOs manage forests directly

Q17. Which is not stated or implied in the passage?
(a) Community-managed forests can outperform centrally protected ones
(b) Legal rights alone guarantee conservation success
(c) Benefit-sharing matters for outcomes
(d) Local participation improves conservation

Passage 4 (Society) — Q18–Q20. “Urbanisation in the developing world is often described as chaotic, yet cities remain engines of opportunity, drawing migrants with higher wages and better services. The policy challenge is not to halt migration but to manage urban growth — through affordable housing, transport, and sanitation — so that agglomeration benefits are widely shared rather than captured by a few.”

Q18. The author believes urban migration should be:
(a) Restricted through permits
(b) Accommodated through better urban planning
(c) Reversed to villages
(d) Left entirely to market forces

Q19. “Agglomeration benefits” refers to:
(a) Overcrowding costs
(b) Economic gains from concentrating people and firms in cities
(c) Government subsidies
(d) Housing shortages

Q20. The tone of the passage can best be described as:
(a) Alarmist (b) Nostalgic (c) Constructively pragmatic (d) Sarcastic

Worked Solutions: Reading Comprehension (Q11–Q20)

Q11 — (b). The passage defines judicial review (lines 1–2), presents critics (lines 2–3), and defenders (lines 3–4). Option (a) captures only the critics; (c) and (d) are not discussed. Trap: “main purpose” questions punish answers that reflect only one paragraph or one viewpoint.

Q12 — (b). The defenders’ argument — without judicial review, fundamental rights would be vulnerable — supports (b). (a) and (d) contradict or exceed the text; (c) is wrong because the passage presents both sides neutrally. Trap: inference questions require what must be true, not what could be true.

Q13 — (c). The passage gives the rationale (anchoring expectations) then critics’ concerns, ending with “has intensified this debate” — a neutral, balanced stance. Trap: extreme options like (a) and (b) are almost never correct in CSAT tone questions.

Q14 — (b). The sentence says price stability “coexisted with dangerous asset bubbles” — i.e., price stability ≠ financial stability. It does not claim causation (a). Answer: (b).

Q15 — (b). In monetary economics, anchoring expectations means stabilising inflation expectations. For UPSC-level RC, context plus common sense suffices.

Q16 — (b). The final lines list secure tenure, institutions, and benefit-sharing as conditions for success — exactly option (b). (c) and (d) distort the passage.

Q17 — (b). The passage explicitly warns that “simply transferring rights without capacity-building rarely works” — the opposite of (b). Answer: (b). Trap: in “NOT” questions, three options are supported; scan for the one contradicted.

Q18 — (b). “The policy challenge is not to halt migration but to manage urban growth” directly maps to (b).

Q19 — (b). Cities as “engines of opportunity” with higher wages implies gains from economic concentration — the standard meaning of agglomeration benefits.

Q20 — (c). The author acknowledges problems but proposes practical solutions (“affordable housing, transport, sanitation”) — constructively pragmatic.

Answer Key at a Glance

Scoring: Correct × 2.5 − Wrong × 0.83. 16+ correct (40 marks) is a comfortable buffer above the qualifying line.

CSAT Logical Reasoning: Key Concepts & Solving Techniques

• Syllogisms via Venn diagrams: Always draw the least-overlapping diagram that satisfies all statements. Test each conclusion against the diagram — a conclusion follows only if it is true in every valid diagram.
• Assumption questions: Ask, “Does the conclusion/statement collapse without this assumption?” If it survives, the assumption is not implicit.
• Seating arrangements: Fix the most definite clue first (e.g., “C sits in the middle”), then attach conditional clues. Eliminate cases rather than solving forward.
• Blood relations: Draw a quick family tree using + / − for gender; decode phrases like “my grandfather’s only son” into direct relations.
• Direction sense: Sketch axes; cancel opposite equal distances before computing displacement (Pythagoras only when needed).
• Coding-decoding: Write letter positions; check for uniform shifts first, then positional rules (odd/even position shifts, reversal).

How to Approach RC Passages in CSAT

• Skim first, read questions, then re-read: Spend 30–45 seconds skimming for the theme, read the questions, then read closely for detail. This beats line-by-line reading for 2.5-mark questions.
• Inference vs fact: If the answer is stated verbatim, it’s a fact question. Inference questions require a small logical step — but never a leap.
• Kill extreme options: Words like “always,” “never,” “only,” “completely” usually mark wrong options in tone and inference items.
• Time management: Target 2–2.5 minutes per RC question including reading. If a passage exceeds 3 minutes for the first question, mark and move on.

For broader context on how CSAT fits into Prelims preparation, refer to the official UPSC syllabus documents at UPSC previous question papers.

Common Mistakes Aspirants Make in CSAT Paper-2

• Over-attempting despite negative marking: With −0.83 per wrong answer, blind guessing erodes your buffer. Attempt 80+ questions only if accuracy exceeds 70%.
• Ignoring qualifiers: Words like “NOT,” “EXCEPT,” “cannot be inferred” flip the required answer. Underline them during reading.
• Spending too long on one puzzle: A 4-minute reasoning question is a bad trade when two RC questions can be solved in the same time.
• Treating CSAT casually: Post-2021, thousands fail CSAT yearly because reasoning difficulty rose. Take it as seriously as GS Paper-1.
• Skipping mock analysis: Attempting tests without reviewing errors repeats the same mistakes.

Practice Strategy & Weekly Study Plan for CSAT

A sustainable plan for the final six months:

• Weekly: Two sectional drills (one reasoning, one RC) of 30 questions each, plus error-log review every Sunday.
• Fortnightly: One full 2-hour CSAT mock from month three onward; two per week in the last two months.
• Daily (45–60 min): Alternate days between RC practice (2 passages) and reasoning/quant drills.
• PYQs: Solve the last 10 years’ CSAT papers — at least twice. They reveal recurring question types better than any guide.

Download & Attempt More CSAT Mock Tests

Continue practising with free resources:

• Official UPSC previous year CSAT papers: https://upsc.gov.in/examinations/prev-question-papers
• Free mock tests and question banks on reputed preparation portals such as BYJU’S Free IAS Prep and Career Launcher UPSC.

Bookmark this page and return weekly — we publish a fresh 20-question CSAT practice set covering logical reasoning and reading comprehension every month, each with full worked solutions.

Frequently Asked Questions

Is CSAT qualifying or does it count in the merit list?

CSAT is purely qualifying. You must score at least 33% — 66.67 marks out of 200 — to clear the paper, but these marks are not added to the merit list. Only GS Paper-1 marks determine Prelims ranking and cut-off.

How many questions should I attempt from logical reasoning vs RC?

Aim for a balanced split based on your accuracy, not on any fixed rule. RC questions are typically faster (2–2.5 minutes each), so many aspirants attempt 25–30 RC questions first. If your reasoning accuracy in mocks exceeds 80%, attempt most reasoning questions too; otherwise, be selective and protect your score from the 0.83 negative marking.

Are these CSAT practice questions useful for SSC and Banking exams?

Yes. Logical reasoning and reading comprehension overlap heavily with SSC CGL, IBPS PO/Clerk, and CLAT patterns. The main differences: SSC reasoning is faster-paced with more series and analogy questions, and Banking exams add puzzles of higher complexity. The core techniques — Venn diagrams, elimination, inference discipline — transfer directly.

How often should I attempt CSAT mock tests?

Take weekly sectional tests throughout preparation, then move to full 2-hour mocks once or twice weekly in the final 2–3 months before Prelims. Always pair each mock with a same-week error analysis session.

Is negative marking applicable in CSAT?

Yes. Each wrong answer costs one-third of the question’s marks — 0.83 marks per incorrect response. Practical risk management: attempt when you can eliminate at least two options; skip questions that are pure guesses, since clearing 66.67 marks does not require attempting all 80 questions.

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