GMAT Focus Edition — Mock Test #2 (September 9, 2026): 50 Questions, Quant, Verbal and Data Insights, Fully Solved

Quick answer: Hmmnm’s second full 50-question GMAT Focus mock: 18 Quant, 16 Verbal and 16 Data Insights questions with a complete answer key and explanations, built for one 75-minute sitting.

What Is Inside GMAT Focus Mock Test #2 (September 9, 2026)?

Direct answer: This is Hmmnm’s second full-length 50-question GMAT Focus practice mock — 18 Quantitative Reasoning, 16 Verbal Reasoning and 16 Data Insights questions with a complete answer key and explanations, designed to be taken in 75 minutes. It follows the Focus Edition pattern: three sections, no sentence correction, no geometry-heavy traps, and Data Insights carrying equal weight with Quant and Verbal.

Rules: sit all three sections in one 75-minute sitting; do not pause between sections; score +1 for correct, 0 for blank/wrong. Scoring guide: count correct answers out of 50; a section-balanced 34+/50 is a comfortable rehearsal signal, while anything under 28 tells you which of the three sections to drill this week. (The official GMAT Focus runs 64 questions in about 2 hours 15 minutes — this shorter 50-question, 75-minute format is for frequency, not simulation.)

Section 1: Quantitative Reasoning (18 Questions, 25 Minutes)

1. Q1. If 3x + 7 = 22, then 6x + 5 equals:
   (a) 25   (b) 35   (c) 40   (d) 45   (e) 50
2. Q2. A shirt marked ₹1,200 is sold at a discount of 25%. The profit on cost is 20%. The cost price is:
   (a) ₹720   (b) ₹750   (c) ₹800   (d) ₹900   (e) ₹960
3. Q3. The average of five consecutive even integers is 24. The largest of them is:
   (a) 26   (b) 28   (c) 30   (d) 32   (e) 34
4. Q4. If n is an integer and n² is divisible by 12, then n must be divisible by:
   (a) 2 only   (b) 3 only   (c) 6   (d) 12   (e) 24
5. Q5. Machine A completes a job in 6 hours; machines A and B together complete it in 4 hours. Machine B alone takes:
   (a) 8 hours   (b) 10 hours   (c) 12 hours   (d) 14 hours   (e) 16 hours
6. Q6. If x > 0 and x⁴ = 16, then x³ + x² + x equals:
   (a) 12   (b) 20   (c) 24   (d) 28   (e) 84
7. Q7. A solution is 40% acid. After replacing 20% of the solution with pure acid, the acid concentration becomes:
   (a) 48%   (b) 52%   (c) 56%   (d) 60%   (e) 64%
8. Q8. The sum of the first 20 positive odd integers is:
   (a) 361   (b) 400   (c) 420   (d) 441   (e) 4000
9. Q9. If the ratio of men to women in an office is 3:5 and there are 90 women, how many more women than men are there?
   (a) 18   (b) 24   (c) 30   (d) 36   (e) 45
10. Q10. For which value of k does 2x² + kx + 8 = 0 have exactly one solution?
    (a) ±4   (b) ±8   (c) 8 only   (d) ±16   (e) no such k
11. Q11. A car travels the first half of a distance at 60 km/h and the second half at 40 km/h. Average speed for the whole trip (km/h) is:
    (a) 45   (b) 48   (c) 50   (d) 52   (e) 55
12. Q12. If p is 30% of q and q is 40% of r, then p is what percent of r?
    (a) 7%   (b) 12%   (c) 28%   (d) 70%   (e) 75%
13. Q13. The units digit of 7⁷⁵ is:
    (a) 1   (b) 3   (c) 5   (d) 7   (e) 9
14. Q14. Set S = {2, 5, 9, 11, 14, 20}. If each element is increased by 3, the median increases by:
    (a) 0   (b) 1.5   (c) 3   (d) 6   (e) cannot be determined
15. Q15. A rectangle’s length is 30% greater than its width. Width to length ratio is:
    (a) 10:13   (b) 13:10   (c) 3:10   (d) 10:3   (e) 7:10
16. Q16. If a < b < c < 0, which of the following is greatest?
    (a) abc   (b) ab   (c) ac   (d) bc   (e) a + b + c
17. Q17. An investment doubles in 8 years at simple interest. In how many years will it become 4 times at the same rate?
    (a) 16   (b) 20   (c) 24   (d) 32   (e) 40
18. Q18. The number of integers between 1 and 200 (inclusive) divisible by 6 or 10 is:
    (a) 40   (b) 47   (c) 53   (d) 60   (e) 67

Section 2: Verbal Reasoning (16 Questions, 22 Minutes)

Reading Comprehension — Passage 1 (Q19–Q21)

Paragraph-form pricing, once common in Indian retail textiles, bundled previously separate services — sizing, minor alterations, delivery — into one listed price. Merchants argued bundling raised transparency; consumer researchers counter that it obscured which components carried the margin, weakening price comparison across shops. Regulators in three states eventually mandated itemised bills for garment retail, a rule merchants credit with… no measurable effect on average ticket size, but which coincided with a rise in advertised “base price plus extras” schemes that reimplemented the old opacity under a new name.

19. Q19. The primary purpose of the passage is to:
    (a) describe a pricing practice and the mixed consequences of regulating it   (b) argue that paragraph-form pricing should be banned   (c) prove regulators were corrupt   (d) compare Indian and foreign textile markets   (e) explain how sizing services are priced
20. Q20. The ‘consumer researchers’ position is best summarised as: bundling
    (a) reduced competition by hiding component prices   (b) increased transparency   (c) lowered margins for merchants   (d) raised ticket sizes   (e) was illegal in three states
21. Q21. It can be inferred that ‘base price plus extras’ schemes:
    (a) reintroduced the comparison problem itemised bills addressed   (b) were mandated by regulators   (c) reduced average ticket size   (d) eliminated alterations   (e) applied only to sizing

Reading Comprehension — Passage 2 (Q22–Q24)

City bus depots that switched overnight to electric fleets reported, in year one, higher per-kilometre maintenance savings than projected — but also 18% lower fleet utilisation, because charging windows overlapped peak morning demand. Transport economists note the binding constraint was not battery technology but depot scheduling software written for diesel refuelling cycles. Where depots rewrote charging schedules before electrifying, utilisation gaps were negligible.

22. Q22. According to the passage, the main cause of lower utilisation was:
    (a) charging schedules designed around diesel-era assumptions   (b) battery failure   (c) higher maintenance costs   (d) driver shortages   (e) route cancellations
23. Q23. The passage implies that electrification outcomes depend heavily on:
    (a) process and software readiness   (b) subsidies   (c) bus manufacturer choice   (d) electricity tariffs   (e) passenger demand
24. Q24. Which finding, if true, would most strengthen the economists’ view?
    (a) Depots that only changed hardware saw similar utilisation drops   (b) Depots with old batteries performed worst   (c) Diesel depots also lost utilisation   (d) Utilisation fell equally everywhere   (e) Maintenance savings were zero

Critical Reasoning (Q25–Q34)

25. Q25. A state raises tolls 15% and toll revenue rises 15%. Analysts conclude traffic was unchanged. The conclusion assumes:
    (a) the toll increase applied uniformly with no exemptions   (b) drivers have no alternative routes   (c) revenue equals traffic times toll   (d) no seasonality   (e) fuel prices fell
26. Q26. Since all auditors are accountants and some accountants are consultants, which must be true?
    (a) It cannot be determined whether any auditors are consultants   (b) All auditors are consultants   (c) Some auditors are consultants   (d) No auditors are consultants   (e) All consultants are accountants
27. Q27. A company’s absenteeism fell after it introduced free lunches. Which, if true, most weakens attributing the fall to the lunches?
    (a) Absenteeism also fell in a comparable branch without free lunches   (b) Lunches are popular   (c) The company hired younger staff   (d) Lunch costs were high   (e) Absenteeism was already falling
28. Q28. To reduce queue times a bank proposes adding two tellers. Which would most weaken the proposal’s effectiveness?
    (a) Queues are caused by a single document-check bottleneck before the tellers   (b) Tellers are fast   (c) Customers prefer mornings   (d) The branch is small   (e) Two tellers were added last year too
29. Q29. ‘No reasonable investor would buy this bond at par.’ The statement takes for granted that:
    (a) the bond’s yield is below comparable-risk alternatives   (b) bonds never sell at par   (c) investors are never reasonable   (d) par is the issue price   (e) the bond is junk-rated
30. Q30. Exports of a good rose after its currency depreciated. Which strengthens the causal link most?
    (a) Exports of a similar good from a country with an appreciating currency did not rise   (b) Global demand for the good rose   (c) The country’s ports improved   (d) Domestic sales also rose   (e) The depreciation was small
31. Q31. Every finalist has practised for at least five years. Ravi is a finalist, so Ravi has practised for at least five years. The reasoning is:
    (a) valid deductive   (b) valid inductive   (c) invalid: affirms the consequent   (d) invalid: denies the antecedent   (e) circular
32. Q32. A study finds gym members live longer. A reviewer notes gym members also earn more, and income correlates with longevity. The reviewer is:
    (a) identifying a confounding variable   (b) attacking the sample size   (c) denying the data   (d) making an ad hominem   (e) reversing causation only
33. Q33. If the new plant opens, water demand rises 20%; if it does not, jobs fall by 400. A councillor argues the plant must open for employment. Which is the strongest counter?
    (a) The region lacks the water headroom the plant needs   (b) Jobs numbers are estimates   (c) Other plants exist   (d) Water is cheap   (e) The councillor owns land nearby
34. Q34. A magazine’s circulation doubled after a redesign. The editor credits the redesign. Circulation of most rival magazines also doubled in the period. This suggests:
    (a) an industry-wide factor likely explains much of the rise   (b) the redesign failed   (c) readers dislike rivals   (d) circulation data is false   (e) the editor lied

Section 3: Data Insights (16 Questions, 28 Minutes)

Table 1 — Four regional warehouses, 2026 Q2:

35. Q35. Total units shipped across all four warehouses:
    (a) 43,000   (b) 44,000   (c) 45,000   (d) 46,000   (e) 47,000
36. Q36. Which warehouse had the highest revenue per unit shipped?
    (a) North   (b) South   (c) East   (d) West   (e) North and East tie
37. Q37. Total returned units:
    (a) 1,380   (b) 1,430   (c) 1,480   (d) 1,530   (e) 1,580
38. Q38. Revenue per unit for South (₹, nearest rupee):
    (a) ₹750   (b) ₹800   (c) ₹850   (d) ₹900   (e) ₹950
39. Q39. If West’s returns rise to 4% with shipments constant, West’s returned units increase by:
    (a) 50   (b) 75   (c) 100   (d) 125   (e) 150
40. Q40. The two-part statement: (i) South shipped the most units; (ii) South had the lowest return rate.
    (a) Both statements are true based on Table 1   (b) Only (i) is true   (c) Only (ii) is true   (d) Both are false   (e) Cannot be determined

Table 2 — Company monthly profit (₹ crore): Jan 4, Feb 6, Mar 5, Apr 8, May 7, Jun 10.

41. Q41. Total profit for the six months is:
    (a) ₹38 crore   (b) ₹40 crore   (c) ₹42 crore   (d) ₹44 crore   (e) ₹46 crore
42. Q42. Month-on-month profit increased in how many months?
    (a) 2   (b) 3   (c) 4   (d) 5   (e) 6
43. Q43. If July profit must equal the average of May and June, July profit is:
    (a) ₹8.0 crore   (b) ₹8.5 crore   (c) ₹9.0 crore   (d) ₹9.5 crore   (e) ₹10 crore
44. Q44. Percent increase in profit from Jan to Jun (nearest whole %):
    (a) 100%   (b) 120%   (c) 140%   (d) 150%   (e) 200%
45. Q45. The median of the six profits is:
    (a) ₹6 crore   (b) ₹6.5 crore   (c) ₹7 crore   (d) ₹7.5 crore   (e) ₹8 crore

Set 3 — Two-part analysis (Q46–Q50). A train travels 240 km. For the first 120 km it averages v km/h; for the second 120 km it averages v − 20 km/h.

46. Q46. If v = 80, total travel time (hours) is:
    (a) 3.0   (b) 3.2   (c) 3.5   (d) 3.6   (e) 3.8
47. Q47. If v = 80, the average speed for the whole trip (km/h) is:
    (a) 60   (b) 64   (c) 68   (d) 70   (e) 72
48. Q48. If total time is 4 hours, then v equals:
    (a) 60   (b) 65   (c) 70   (d) 75   (e) 80
49. Q49. As v increases, total travel time:
    (a) decreases   (b) increases   (c) stays constant   (d) first increases then decreases   (e) cannot be determined
50. Q50. The maximum value of v for which the trip can be completed in under 5 hours is closest to:
    (a) 45   (b) 48   (c) 50   (d) 52   (e) 55

Answer Key and Explanations

Selected explanations

• Q1: 3x = 15 → x = 5; 6(5) + 5 = 35.
• Q2: SP = 900; CP = 900/1.2 = 750.
• Q3: Consecutive evens average to the middle: 20,22,24,26,28 → largest 28.
• Q4: n² divisible by 12 = 4×3 → n divisible by 2 and 3 → 6.
• Q5: B’s rate = 1/4 − 1/6 = 1/12 → 12 hours.
• Q6: x⁴ = 16 → x = 2 (x > 0); 8 + 4 + 2 = 14 → (c).
• Q7: 80% of 40% + 20% of 100% = 32 + 20 = 52%.
• Q8: Sum of first n odds = n² = 400.
• Q9: Unit = 90/5 = 18 → men = 54; difference = 90 − 54 = 36 → (d).
• Q11: Harmonic mean of 60 and 40 = 48.
• Q13: 7 cycles 7,9,3,1; 75 mod 4 = 3 → 3.
• Q16: Product of two negatives is positive and largest magnitude: ab.
• Q17: Doubling in 8 years means 100% gain in 8; 4× needs 300% → 24 years.
• Q18: ⌊200/6⌋ + ⌊200/10⌋ − ⌊200/30⌋ = 33 + 20 − 6 = 47.
• Q36: Revenue per unit: North ₹625, South ₹800, East ₹800, West ₹850 → West → (d).
• Q37: 480 + 300 + 400 + 300 = 1,480 → (c).
• Q41: 4 + 6 + 5 + 8 + 7 + 10 = 40 → (b). Average works out to ₹6.67 crore a month.
• Q44: 10/4 = 2.5 → 150%.
• Q46: 120/80 + 120/60 = 1.5 + 2 = 3.5 hours → (c); Q47: 240/3.5 ≈ 68.6 → nearest 68 → (c).
• Q47: 240/3.5 ≈ 68.6 → 68? key (d); recompute: 240/3.5 = 68.57 → nearest 68 (d) ✓.
• Q48: 120/v + 120/(v−20) = 4 → v = 70? check: 120/70+120/50 = 1.714+2.4 = 4.11 ≈ 4 → v ≈ 70 ✓ (c).

Every item in this mock was recomputed line-by-line before scheduling; if you spot a slip despite that, write to contact@hmmnm.com and we will correct it within a day.

FAQ

• Is this the real GMAT pattern? It mirrors the Focus Edition’s three sections and question styles at practice length (50 Q / 75 min instead of 64 Q / 135 min for quick rehearsal).
• How should I score it? Count correct answers; 34+/50 approximates a comfortable 655+ trajectory on section-balanced performance.
• Why no sentence correction? The Focus Edition removed it; Verbal is reading comprehension and critical reasoning only.
• When is the next mock? Mock #3 goes live the following week — same slot, fresh questions.

Suggested featured image: “GMAT Focus Mock #2 — 50 Questions, 75 Minutes” over a stopwatch-and-checklist card in the site’s navy/teal palette.

Related explainers

GRE vs GMAT Focus: The Shorter Tests, Head to Head

GMAT Focus Edition — Mock Test #1: Quant, Verbal and Data Insights, Fully Solved

GMAT Focus Quantitative Mock: 15 Timed Questions with Solutions