Ten practice questions in the UPSC Prelims PYQ pattern — statement-based, matched pairs and “which of the above” traps included. Tap a question to reveal the answer and the one-line reasoning. These are original practice items written to the exam’s pattern and difficulty, cross-linked to our Polity explainers.
Q1. With reference to the Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. They are available only against the actions of the State.
2. Some of them are available to citizens alone.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b). Most Fundamental Rights also bind non-state actors in certain contexts (e.g., Articles 15(2), 17, 23), so statement 1 is wrong. Rights in Articles 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30 are citizens-only, so statement 2 is correct.
Q2. Consider the following pairs: (Directive Principle — Article):
1. Equal pay for equal work — Article 39
2. Organisation of village panchayats — Article 40
3. Uniform civil code — Article 44
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d). All three pairs are correctly matched — a classic “all of the above” trap where every pair is genuine.
Q3. With reference to the Rajya Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. It can authorize Parliament to legislate on a State subject.
2. Money bills can be introduced in it only with the Speaker’s permission.
Which is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a). Article 249 lets the Rajya Sabha (two-thirds majority) empower Parliament on State subjects. Money bills can be introduced ONLY in the Lok Sabha (Article 110) — no permission route exists.
Q4. The term “collective responsibility” in the Indian Constitution appears in which context?
- (a) The Council of Ministers collectively responsible to both Houses
- (b) The Council of Ministers collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha
- (c) The Cabinet collectively responsible to the President
- (d) The Parliament collectively responsible to the electorate
Answer: (b). Article 75(3): the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha — not both Houses, not the President.
Q5. Which of the following are constitutional bodies?
1. Finance Commission
2. NITI Aayog
3. National Human Rights Commission
Select the correct answer:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a). Only the Finance Commission is constitutional (Article 280). NITI Aayog and NHRC are statutory/executive bodies — a recurring UPSC trap.
Q6. With reference to the President of India, consider the following statements:
1. A person can be elected President for more than two terms.
2. Impeachment charges can be initiated in either House of Parliament.
Which is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c). The Constitution sets no term limit on the Presidency (statement 1 is a favourite trap), and impeachment (Article 61) may be initiated in either House.
Q7. “Basic structure” of the Constitution was first articulated in which case?
- (a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
- (b) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
- (c) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
- (d) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain
Answer: (b). Kesavananda Bharati (1973). Golaknath protected fundamental rights from amendment; Minerva Mills and the Election Case applied and refined the doctrine.
Q8. Consider the following about the Panchayati Raj system:
1. The 73rd Amendment made three-tier Panchayats mandatory.
2. Panchayat elections are conducted by the State Election Commission.
Which is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c). The 73rd Amendment (1992) mandates the three-tier structure (Article 243B), and Article 243K assigns Panchayat elections to the State Election Commission.
Q9. Which Schedule of the Constitution contains provisions relating to anti-defection?
- (a) Eighth Schedule
- (b) Ninth Schedule
- (c) Tenth Schedule
- (d) Twelfth Schedule
Answer: (c). The Tenth Schedule, inserted by the 52nd Amendment (1985). Eighth = languages; Ninth = protected laws; Twelfth = municipalities.
Q10. With reference to the Attorney-General of India, consider the following:
1. He/She must be qualified to be a Supreme Court judge.
2. He/She has a fixed tenure of five years.
Which is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a). Article 76 requires SC-judge qualifications, but the tenure is at the President’s pleasure — no fixed term.
Actual past questions — UPSC CSE Prelims 2024, GS Paper I (Set A)
These ten Polity questions are transcribed verbatim from the official UPSC question paper (question numbers as in Set A). Source: UPSC’s published PDF →. Answers are verified against the constitutional text and published keys.
Q67. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:
1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d). Article 368(1) itself says “addition, variation or repeal” — all three verbs are in the constitutional text. A classic read-the-Article question.
Q70. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
- (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
- (c) 2 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a). Post-2002 the Council is the Governors and Chief Ministers of the member States plus three President-nominated members. The Union Home Minister chairs the Council — chairmanship is distinct from the enumerated membership, so statement 4 is excluded.
Q74. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
Select the answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d). Part IXA (74th Amendment), Part XVIII (Articles 352–360), Part XX (Article 368). All three parts are exactly where the question says — the “all of the above” that is genuinely correct.
Q77. Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
- (a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
- (b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
- (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
- (d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
Answer: (c). Inter-State trade and commerce (Art 301–307) is a Union subject; inter-State migration and quarantine appear in the Union List (Entries 81/46 era); corporation tax is Union (though shareable). Only statement (c) survives.
Q78. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?
- (a) Article 15
- (b) Article 16
- (c) Article 19
- (d) Article 21
Answer: (d). K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017): privacy is intrinsic to Article 21 — life and personal liberty. Nine-judge bench, unanimous.
Q80. Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
Select the answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c). The Ethics Committee began as an ad-hoc body (2006) before becoming a standing committee; any person may file a complaint, not only MPs; and sub-judice matters are barred. Statements 1 and 3 stand.
Q83. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:
- (a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
- (b) the Parliament/Legislature Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
- (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
- (d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.
Answer: (c). Prohibition is prospective — it halts a lower court/tribunal from continuing beyond its jurisdiction. (Certiorari is the retrospective cousin that quashes; quo warranto targets officers.)
Q84. Consider the following statements:
1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b). The President (Article 342), after consulting the Governor, notifies Scheduled Tribes — not the Governor alone. And ST listings are State-specific, so statement 2 is correct.
Q93. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration:
1. He/She shall not preside.
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b). Article 96: the Speaker does not preside during their own removal, but may speak and take part in the proceedings, voting only in a tie — so 2 is wrong and 3 (no first-instance vote) is right.
Q94. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2
- (c) 2 and 3
- (d) 3 only
Answer: (b). Rules of lapse: bills originating and pending in the LS lapse; bills passed by LS awaiting RS also lapse — but a bill already notified for a joint sitting survives dissolution. Statements 1 and 2.
Transcribed from the official UPSC CSE (Preliminary) Examination 2024 General Studies Paper I (Set A). More years and subjects added weekly — see the practice hub.