You are currently viewing IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test (September 14, 2026): 100 Questions in the Real Exam Pattern, Fully Explained — Day 5, 22 Days to Exam
Banking Exams15 min readSep 14, 2026

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test (September 14, 2026): 100 Questions in the Real Exam Pattern, Fully Explained — Day 5, 22 Days to Exam

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test (September 14, 2026): 100 Questions in the Real Exam Pattern, Fully Explained — Day 5, 22 Days to Exam
15 min read · 2,861 words

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test Day 5: 100 Questions with Full Solutions

Quick answer: Day 5 of the IBPS PO Prelims countdown: a full 100-question mock in the real pattern – Reasoning 35, Quant 35, English 30, each section 20 minutes, 100 marks in 60 minutes at 0.25 negative marking – with the complete answer key and one-line explanation for every question. Prelims expected 3 October 2026: 22 days to go.

What is the pattern you are practising?

Three sections with 20-minute sectional windows – English Language 30 questions, Quantitative Aptitude 35, Reasoning Ability 35 – totalling 100 questions and 100 marks in 60 minutes, 0.25 penalty per wrong answer and sectional cutoffs (pattern per the official IBPS website). Watch the section timer, not just the total: you cannot borrow minutes across sections.

Reasoning Ability (Q1-Q35, 20 minutes)

  1. Q1. 6, 12, 24, 48, ?
    (a) 72   b) 84   c) 96   d) 108)
  2. Q2. 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, ?
    (a) 46   b) 47   c) 48   d) 49)
  3. Q3. If PEN = 35 (letter-position sum), then INK = ?
    (a) 32   b) 33   c) 34   d) 35)
  4. Q4. Odd one out: 21, 28, 35, 45
    (a) 21   b) 28   c) 35   d) 45)
  5. Q5. A is B’s sister. C is B’s mother. D is C’s father. How is A related to D?
    (a) Granddaughter   b) Daughter   c) Niece   d) Sister)
  6. Q6. A man facing south turns left twice. He now faces:
    (a) East   b) West   c) North   d) South)
  7. Q7. In a certain code DOG is written as EPH. CAT is written as:
    (a) DBU   b) BZS   c) DUB   d) BU D)
  8. Q8. P is taller than Q; R is shorter than Q; S is shorter than R. Who is tallest?
    (a) P   b) Q   c) R   d) S)
  9. Q9. 5, 11, 21, 43, ?
    (a) 85   b) 84   c) 86   d) 87)
  10. Q10. Odd one out: Rectangle, Square, Circle, Rhombus
    (a) Rectangle   b) Square   c) Circle   d) Rhombus)
  11. Q11. In a row of 42 people, the 18th from the left is which position from the right?
    (a) 24th   b) 25th   c) 26th   d) 27th)
  12. Q12. Some pens are pencils. All pencils are erasers. Which follows?
    (a) Some pens are erasers   b) All pens are erasers   c) No pen is an eraser   d) All erasers are pencils)
  13. Q13. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, ?
    (a) 15   b) 16   c) 17   d) 19)
  14. Q14. A man walks 5 km north, turns right and walks 5 km, then turns right and walks 5 km. He is:
    (a) 5 km east of start   b) 5 km west of start   c) At the start   d) 10 km from start)
  15. Q15. AC, EG, IK, ?
    (a) MO   b) MN   c) LM   d) NO)
  16. Q16. If ME = 18 (letter-position sum), then DO = ?
    (a) 17   b) 18   c) 19   d) 20)
  17. Q17. Book : Chapters : : House : ?
    (a) Rooms   b) Doors   c) Roof   d) Walls)
  18. Q18. M sits to the right of N; P sits to the left of N. Who is in the middle?
    (a) M   b) N   c) P   d) Cannot be determined)
  19. Q19. 100, 96, 88, 76, ?
    (a) 64   b) 60   c) 58   d) 56)
  20. Q20. Odd one out: 16, 25, 36, 42
    (a) 16   b) 25   c) 36   d) 42)
  21. Q21. If APPLE is written in reverse, it reads:
    (a) ELPPA   b) ELPAP   c) EPPLA   d) LPEPA)
  22. Q22. All squares are rectangles. Some rectangles are circles. Which must be true?
    (a) Some squares are circles   b) No square is a circle   c) Some rectangles are squares   d) All rectangles are squares)
  23. Q23. Pointing to a photograph: he is my son’s grandfather. The man is the speaker’s:
    (a) Father   b) Brother   c) Uncle   d) Grandfather)
  24. Q24. A person walks 3 km east, then 4 km south. Distance from start:
    (a) 4 km   b) 5 km   c) 6 km   d) 7 km)
  25. Q25. Z, X, U, Q, ?
    (a) N   b) M   c) L   d) K)
  26. Q26. Odd one out: 27, 64, 100, 125
    (a) 27   b) 64   c) 100   d) 125)
  27. Q27. Doctor : Stethoscope : : Painter : ?
    (a) Canvas   b) Brush   c) Colour   d) Easel)
  28. Q28. If RED = 27 and BED = 15 (letter-position sums), then HEAD = ?
    (a) 17   b) 18   c) 19   d) 20)
  29. Q29. The angle between clock hands at 6:30 is:
    (a) 0 degrees   b) 15 degrees   c) 30 degrees   d) 45 degrees)
  30. Q30. If today is Monday, the day after 59 days will be:
    (a) Wednesday   b) Thursday   c) Friday   d) Saturday)
  31. Q31. Rahul is 11th from both ends of a row. The row has:
    (a) 20 people   b) 21 people   c) 22 people   d) 23 people)
  32. Q32. Odd one out: Gold, Silver, Bronze, Platinum
    (a) Gold   b) Silver   c) Bronze   d) Platinum)
  33. Q33. 4, 5, 7, 10, 14, 19, ?
    (a) 24   b) 25   c) 26   d) 27)
  34. Q34. If X is taller than Y and Y is taller than Z, the tallest is:
    (a) X   b) Y   c) Z   d) Cannot be determined)
  35. Q35. 144, 121, 100, 81, ?
    (a) 64   b) 60   c) 56   d) 49)

Quantitative Aptitude (Q36-Q70, 20 minutes)

  1. Q36. 24 x 15 / 6 + 8 = ?
    (a) 66   b) 68   c) 70   d) 72)
  2. Q37. What percent of 400 is 68?
    (a) 15%   b) 16%   c) 17%   d) 18%)
  3. Q38. The average of 6 numbers is 15. One number, 20, is removed. New average?
    (a) 13   b) 14   c) 15   d) 16)
  4. Q39. Simple interest on Rs 4,500 at 4% for 3 years:
    (a) Rs 480   b) Rs 510   c) Rs 540   d) Rs 570)
  5. Q40. Cost Rs 800, sold Rs 920. Profit percent:
    (a) 12%   b) 13%   c) 15%   d) 17%)
  6. Q41. 2/5 of 355 is:
    (a) 140   b) 142   c) 144   d) 146)
  7. Q42. A train 180 m long at 54 km/h crosses a pole in:
    (a) 10 s   b) 12 s   c) 14 s   d) 16 s)
  8. Q43. Two numbers ratio 4:5, sum 117. The larger is:
    (a) 60   b) 63   c) 65   d) 68)
  9. Q44. The square root of 676 is:
    (a) 24   b) 25   c) 26   d) 28)
  10. Q45. Milk and water in ratio 7:2 in a 45-litre mixture. The milk is:
    (a) 33 L   b) 35 L   c) 37 L   d) 39 L)
  11. Q46. A does a job in 15 days, B in 30 days. Together:
    (a) 8 days   b) 9 days   c) 10 days   d) 12 days)
  12. Q47. Successive discounts of 20% and 10% equal a single discount of:
    (a) 28%   b) 29%   c) 30%   d) 31%)
  13. Q48. Two dice are thrown. P(sum = 8)?
    (a) 1/6   b) 5/36   c) 1/9   d) 7/36)
  14. Q49. Compound interest on Rs 4,000 at 5% for 2 years:
    (a) Rs 400   b) Rs 405   c) Rs 410   d) Rs 415)
  15. Q50. Pipe A fills a tank in 8 hours, pipe B in 6 hours. Together:
    (a) 24/7 hours   b) 3 hours   c) 4 hours   d) 7/24 hours)
  16. Q51. Solve: 5x – 7 = 2x + 14
    (a) 5   b) 6   c) 7   d) 8)
  17. Q52. LCM of 18 and 24:
    (a) 48   b) 54   c) 64   d) 72)
  18. Q53. Area of a triangle with base 12 cm and height 9 cm:
    (a) 48 cm^2   b) 54 cm^2   c) 60 cm^2   d) 64 cm^2)
  19. Q54. A car at 60 km/h covers 25 m in:
    (a) 1 s   b) 1.5 s   c) 2 s   d) 2.5 s)
  20. Q55. Marked price Rs 1,200 with a 15% discount. Selling price:
    (a) Rs 1,000   b) Rs 1,020   c) Rs 1,040   d) Rs 1,060)
  21. Q56. The sum of the first 20 natural numbers is:
    (a) 190   b) 200   c) 210   d) 220)
  22. Q57. 0.4 x 0.05 = ?
    (a) 0.2   b) 0.02   c) 0.002   d) 2.0)
  23. Q58. A square has perimeter 100 cm. Its area:
    (a) 576 cm^2   b) 600 cm^2   c) 625 cm^2   d) 650 cm^2)
  24. Q59. A:B = 2:3 and B:C = 4:5. Then A:C = ?
    (a) 8:15   b) 2:5   c) 3:5   d) 4:9)
  25. Q60. The average of 30 students is 14. Including the teacher it becomes 15. The teacher’s age:
    (a) 40 years   b) 44 years   c) 45 years   d) 50 years)
  26. Q61. Three consecutive integers sum to 72. The largest is:
    (a) 23   b) 24   c) 25   d) 26)
  27. Q62. Sold at Rs 540 after a 10% loss. The cost price was:
    (a) Rs 580   b) Rs 594   c) Rs 600   d) Rs 620)
  28. Q63. tan 45 x sec 45 = ?
    (a) 1   b) 2   c) sqrt(2)   d) 1/sqrt(2))
  29. Q64. Volume of a cylinder, radius 7 cm, height 10 cm (pi = 22/7):
    (a) 1,440 cm^3   b) 1,540 cm^3   c) 1,640 cm^3   d) 1,740 cm^3)
  30. Q65. A sum triples itself in 20 years at simple interest. The rate is:
    (a) 8%   b) 10%   c) 12%   d) 15%)
  31. Q66. The diagonal of a square of side 10 cm is:
    (a) 10 cm   b) 10 sqrt(2) cm   c) 20 cm   d) 5 sqrt(2) cm)
  32. Q67. 45 boys and 30 girls. The ratio of boys to girls:
    (a) 2:3   b) 3:2   c) 4:3   d) 5:3)
  33. Q68. 250 reduced by 30% gives:
    (a) 165   b) 170   c) 175   d) 180)
  34. Q69. The complement of 35 degrees is:
    (a) 45 degrees   b) 55 degrees   c) 65 degrees   d) 145 degrees)
  35. Q70. A town of 8,000 grows by 5%. New population:
    (a) 8,300   b) 8,400   c) 8,450   d) 8,500)

English Language (Q71-Q100, 20 minutes)

  1. Q71. Choose the synonym of FRUGAL.
    (a) Wasteful   b) Economical   c) Proud   d) Careless)
  2. Q72. Choose the antonym of TRANSPARENT.
    (a) Clear   b) Opaque   c) Thin   d) Bright)
  3. Q73. Fill in: She is interested ____ music.
    (a) on   b) in   c) at   d) for)
  4. Q74. Spot the error: She do not (a) / like tea (b) / at all (c).
    (a) (a)   b) (b)   c) (c)   d) No error)
  5. Q75. One word for a place where soldiers live:
    (a) Barracks   b) Hostel   c) Garage   d) Dormitory)
  6. Q76. The idiom to get cold feet means:
    (a) To fall ill   b) To feel nervous before an event   c) To be cold   d) To run away)
  7. Q77. Choose the correctly spelt word:
    (a) Comittee   b) Committee   c) Commitee   d) Commmittee)
  8. Q78. Fill in: He succeeded ____ passing the exam.
    (a) on   b) in   c) at   d) with)
  9. Q79. Choose the synonym of VIVID.
    (a) Dull   b) Bright   c) Vague   d) Plain)
  10. Q80. Choose the antonym of CONCEAL.
    (a) Hide   b) Reveal   c) Protect   d) Cover)
  11. Q81. Change to passive: The manager is preparing the report.
    (a) The report is prepared by the manager   b) The report is being prepared by the manager   c) The report was prepared   d) The report has prepared)
  12. Q82. Fill in: The books ____ on the shelf.
    (a) is   b) are   c) was   d) has been)
  13. Q83. Indirect speech: He said, I will come tomorrow.
    (a) He said he will come tomorrow   b) He said that he would come the next day   c) He says he would come   d) He said he comes tomorrow)
  14. Q84. The idiom to bite the bullet means:
    (a) To eat fast   b) To endure a painful situation bravely   c) To get angry   d) To shoot)
  15. Q85. One word for a remedy for all diseases:
    (a) Panacea   b) Antidote   c) Vaccine   d) Therapy)
  16. Q86. Spot the error: Each man and each woman (a) / have a vote (b) / here (c).
    (a) (a)   b) (b)   c) (c)   d) No error)
  17. Q87. Choose the synonym of INDUSTRIOUS.
    (a) Lazy   b) Hardworking   c) Rude   d) Late)
  18. Q88. Choose the antonym of LIBERAL.
    (a) Generous   b) Conservative   c) Kind   d) Modern)
  19. Q89. Fill in: Congratulate him ____ his success.
    (a) for   b) on   c) at   d) with)
  20. Q90. Fill in: The river flows ____ the city.
    (a) above   b) through   c) on   d) at)
  21. Q91. Choose the correctly spelt word:
    (a) Beaurocracy   b) Bureaucracy   c) Bureacracy   d) Burocracy)
  22. Q92. One word for a person who loves mankind:
    (a) Misanthrope   b) Philanthropist   c) Optimist   d) Pacifist)
  23. Q93. Spot the error: I am living (a) / here since 2015 (b) / happily (c).
    (a) (a)   b) (b)   c) (c)   d) No error)
  24. Q94. Choose the synonym of RESILIENT.
    (a) Rigid   b) Quick to recover   c) Weak   d) Silent)
  25. Q95. Choose the antonym of HOSTILE.
    (a) Angry   b) Friendly   c) Neutral   d) Cold)
  26. Q96. Indirect speech: “Where do you live?” he asked.
    (a) He asked where do I live   b) He asked where I lived   c) He asked where I live   d) He asked where did I live)
  27. Q97. Fill in: Neither Ram nor his brothers ____ present.
    (a) is   b) was   c) are   d) has been)
  28. Q98. The idiom to hit the nail on the head means:
    (a) To hurt someone   b) To say exactly the right thing   c) To work hard   d) To miss the point)
  29. Q99. One word for a person new to a job:
    (a) Veteran   b) Novice   c) Expert   d) Master)
  30. Q100. Choose the synonym of LEGITIMATE.
    (a) Illegal   b) Lawful   c) Fake   d) Rare)

Answer key

QuestionAnswer
Q1C
Q2C
Q3C
Q4D
Q5A
Q6C
Q7A
Q8A
Q9A
Q10C
Q11B
Q12A
Q13C
Q14A
Q15A
Q16C
Q17A
Q18B
Q19B
Q20D
Q21A
Q22C
Q23A
Q24B
Q25C
Q26C
Q27B
Q28B
Q29B
Q30B
Q31B
Q32C
Q33B
Q34A
Q35A
Q36B
Q37C
Q38B
Q39C
Q40C
Q41B
Q42B
Q43C
Q44C
Q45B
Q46C
Q47A
Q48B
Q49C
Q50A
Q51C
Q52D
Q53B
Q54B
Q55B
Q56C
Q57B
Q58C
Q59A
Q60C
Q61C
Q62C
Q63C
Q64B
Q65B
Q66B
Q67B
Q68C
Q69B
Q70B
Q71B
Q72B
Q73B
Q74A
Q75A
Q76B
Q77B
Q78B
Q79B
Q80B
Q81B
Q82B
Q83B
Q84B
Q85A
Q86B
Q87B
Q88B
Q89B
Q90B
Q91B
Q92B
Q93A
Q94B
Q95B
Q96B
Q97C
Q98B
Q99B
Q100B

Why each answer is correct

  1. Q1: Each term doubles: 48 x 2 = 96.
  2. Q2: Pattern n^2 – 1: 7^2 – 1 = 48.
  3. Q3: I9 + N14 + K11 = 34.
  4. Q4: The first three are multiples of 7; 45 is not.
  5. Q5: C is A’s mother too, so D (C’s father) is A’s grandfather – A is his granddaughter.
  6. Q6: South -> left (east) -> left (north).
  7. Q7: Each letter +1: C-D, A-B, T-U.
  8. Q8: P > Q > R > S.
  9. Q9: x2+1, x2-1 alternately: 43 x 2 – 1 = 85.
  10. Q10: The circle has no straight sides.
  11. Q11: 42 – 18 + 1 = 25th.
  12. Q12: The pens that are pencils must be erasers.
  13. Q13: Prime sequence: next is 17.
  14. Q14: The 5 km north and south legs cancel; net 5 km east.
  15. Q15: Each pair advances by two letters: I+2 = K? pattern: A-C, E-G, I-K, M-O.
  16. Q16: D4 + O15 = 19.
  17. Q17: A book contains chapters as a house contains rooms.
  18. Q18: Order left to right: P, N, M – N is in the middle.
  19. Q19: Differences -4, -8, -12, then -16: 76 – 16 = 60.
  20. Q20: 16, 25 and 36 are perfect squares; 42 is not.
  21. Q21: A-P-P-L-E reversed is E-L-P-P-A.
  22. Q22: Only the converse is certain.
  23. Q23: The son’s grandfather (paternal) is the speaker’s father.
  24. Q24: 3-4-5 right triangle: 5 km.
  25. Q25: Gaps -2, -3, -4, then -5: Q(17) – 5 = L(12).
  26. Q26: 27, 64 and 125 are perfect cubes; 100 is not.
  27. Q27: The stethoscope is the doctor’s tool as the brush is the painter’s.
  28. Q28: H8 + E5 + A1 + D4 = 18.
  29. Q29: Hour hand 195 degrees, minute 180 degrees: difference 15 degrees.
  30. Q30: 59 mod 7 = 3; Monday + 3 = Thursday.
  31. Q31: 11 + 11 – 1 = 21.
  32. Q32: Bronze is an alloy; the others are pure elements.
  33. Q33: Differences +1, +2, +3, +4, +5, then +6: 19 + 6 = 25.
  34. Q34: X > Y > Z.
  35. Q35: Squares of 12, 11, 10, 9, then 8: 64.
  36. Q36: 24 x 2.5 = 60; 60 + 8 = 68.
  37. Q37: 68/400 = 17%.
  38. Q38: (90 – 20)/5 = 14.
  39. Q39: 4500 x 4 x 3/100 = Rs 540.
  40. Q40: 120/800 = 15%.
  41. Q41: 355 x 2 / 5 = 142.
  42. Q42: 54 km/h = 15 m/s; 180/15 = 12 s.
  43. Q43: 9 parts = 117; larger = 5 x 13 = 65.
  44. Q44: 26 x 26 = 676.
  45. Q45: 9 parts = 45; milk = 7 x 5 = 35 L.
  46. Q46: 1/15 + 1/30 = 1/10 – 10 days.
  47. Q47: 1 – 0.8 x 0.9 = 0.28 = 28%.
  48. Q48: Favourable (2,6)(3,5)(4,4)(5,3)(6,2) = 5 of 36.
  49. Q49: 4000 x 1.1025 = 4,410; CI = Rs 410.
  50. Q50: 1/8 + 1/6 = 7/24 – 24/7 hours.
  51. Q51: 3x = 21; x = 7.
  52. Q52: 18 = 2 x 3^2; 24 = 2^3 x 3; LCM = 2^3 x 3^2 = 72.
  53. Q53: 1/2 x 12 x 9 = 54 cm^2.
  54. Q54: 60 km/h = 16.67 m/s; 25/16.67 = 1.5 s.
  55. Q55: 1200 x 0.85 = Rs 1,020.
  56. Q56: 20 x 21/2 = 210.
  57. Q57: 4 x 5 = 20, four decimal places: 0.02.
  58. Q58: Side 25; 25^2 = 625 cm^2.
  59. Q59: A:B:C = 8:12:15, so A:C = 8:15.
  60. Q60: Total 420 + T = 31 x 15 = 465; T = 45.
  61. Q61: 23 + 24 + 25 = 72; largest 25.
  62. Q62: 540/0.9 = Rs 600.
  63. Q63: 1 x sqrt(2) = sqrt(2).
  64. Q64: 22/7 x 49 x 10 = 1,540 cm^3.
  65. Q65: 200% in 20 years = 10% per annum.
  66. Q66: d = side x sqrt(2).
  67. Q67: 45:30 = 3:2.
  68. Q68: 250 x 0.7 = 175.
  69. Q69: 90 – 35 = 55 degrees.
  70. Q70: 8000 x 1.05 = 8,400.
  71. Q71: Frugal means economical.
  72. Q72: Transparent vs opaque.
  73. Q73: Interested in.
  74. Q74: She does not – third person singular.
  75. Q75: Soldiers live in barracks.
  76. Q76: Nervousness before something planned.
  77. Q77: Committee – double m, double t, double e.
  78. Q78: Succeeded in + gerund.
  79. Q79: Vivid means bright and clear.
  80. Q80: Conceal vs reveal.
  81. Q81: Present continuous passive.
  82. Q82: Plural subject: are.
  83. Q83: Will becomes would; tomorrow becomes the next day.
  84. Q84: To face something difficult with courage.
  85. Q85: A panacea cures everything.
  86. Q86: Each…and each… takes a singular verb: has.
  87. Q87: Industrious means hardworking.
  88. Q88: Liberal vs conservative.
  89. Q89: Congratulate someone on something.
  90. Q90: Flows through the city.
  91. Q91: Bureaucracy.
  92. Q92: A philanthropist.
  93. Q93: Since 2015 needs present perfect continuous: I have been living.
  94. Q94: Resilient means able to bounce back.
  95. Q95: Hostile vs friendly.
  96. Q96: Indirect question with backshift: where I lived.
  97. Q97: Verb agrees with the nearer subject: brothers – are.
  98. Q98: To be exactly right.
  99. Q99: A novice.
  100. Q100: Legitimate means lawful.

Day 5 of the series. Compare with Day 1 to measure your week, and pair this with the banking awareness regulatory map for the mains build-up. A fresh full-pattern mock publishes daily until exam day.

Sources and further reading

Related reading

Quick revision

  • Q1.: 6, 12, 24, 48, ?(a) 72   b) 84   c) 96   d) 108)
  • Q2.: 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, ?(a) 46   b) 47   c) 48   d) 49)
  • Q3.: If PEN = 35 (letter-position sum), then INK = ?(a) 32   b) 33   c) 34   d) 35)
  • Q4.: Odd one out: 21, 28, 35, 45(a) 21   b) 28   c) 35   d) 45)
  • Q5.: A is B’s sister. C is B’s mother. D is C’s father. How is A related to D?(a) Granddaughter   b) Daughter   c) Niece  …
  • Q6.: A man facing south turns left twice. He now faces:(a) East   b) West   c) North   d) South)
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